30 OET Listening Part B Exam Model Questions And Answers in a Row – Part 1


30 OET Listening Part B Exam Model Questions And Answers in a Row – PART 1

 

1. Answer: A) To maintain consistent dosage.
Rationale: The pharmacist explicitly states that shaking the inhaler is vital for a consistent dose with each inhalation.

2. Answer: C) To avoid restricting blood flow.
Rationale: Tight bandages can impede blood circulation, leading to complications like numbness or discoloration. Options A and B are not the primary reasons for avoiding tight compression.

3. Answer: B) To improve patient safety and standardize procedures.
Rationale: The nursing manager explicitly states that the checklist is designed to reduce the risk of errors and standardize practices, both of which contribute to improved patient safety. While options A and C are benefits, they are not the primary objectives.

4. Answer: B. Conduct a Doppler ultrasound to confirm DVT.
Rationale: The conversation highlights the suspicion of a DVT based on Mr. Porter’s symptoms. The next logical step is to confirm this diagnosis through a Doppler ultrasound. While monitoring vitals and potential interventions like anticoagulant therapy are mentioned, they are dependent on the confirmation of the DVT through the ultrasound.

5. Answer: B) To provide additional strength to the wound closure. Rationale: Ivy explicitly states that dissolvable stitches are not as strong initially compared to traditional stitches, and therefore, surgical glue is used to reinforce wound closure and provide extra strength.

6. Answer: B) Reduced gum bleeding over time.
Rationale: Simon mentions that initial gum bleeding might occur but regular flossing will lead to healthier gums, implying a reduction in bleeding over time. Options A and C are incorrect.

7. B) Potential compromise of patient safety due to understaffing.
Rationale: Mihiraa explicitly mentions the risk to patient safety as a direct result of extended breaks. She highlights instances of patients being left unattended and the correlation between medication errors and potential fatigue caused by these prolonged absences.

8. B) The combination of medications is causing dangerously low blood pressure.
Rationale: The conversation clearly indicates that the primary concern is the hypotension (low blood pressure) being experienced by Mr. Desai. The doctor explicitly states that the Carvedilol and diuretic interaction is the suspected cause and outlines a plan to reduce the Carvedilol dosage and monitor blood pressure closely. While potassium levels are important to monitor, they are addressed as a secondary concern to manage the hypotension effectively.

9. B) To enhance patient safety and accountability.
Rationale: Mihiraa explicitly states that the primary goal of implementing the biometric system is to improve patient safety and accountability. She mentions that the system will help maintain accurate staffing records, which is crucial for ensuring adequate patient care. While it is possible that the system might indirectly impact productivity and workload, these are not the primary reasons for its implementation. The focus is on patient safety and ensuring staff accountability.

10. C) heart condition is aggravated by pneumonia and medications.
Rationale: While the patient’s oxygen levels and potential for hypokalemia are valid concerns, the conversation emphasizes the interplay between the patient’s pneumonia, heart condition, and medications. The nurses specifically mention the concern about the patient’s heart problems and the potential impact of the diuretic on potassium levels, which can further strain the heart. Therefore, the primary concern is the overall management of the patient’s heart condition in the context of her pneumonia and medication regimen.

11. C) Hydrogel or foam dressings
Rationale: The conversation clearly indicates that hydrogel or foam dressings are recommended for wounds with heavy exudate. While alginate dressings are good at absorbing exudate, they are not the most suitable option due to their potential drawbacks. Hydrocolloids, on the other hand, are better suited for autolytic debridement and cannot handle heavy exudate effectively. Therefore, based on the information provided, hydrogel or foam dressings are the most appropriate choice for managing wounds with significant drainage.

12. C) The tablets are expected to have fewer side effects.
Rationale: The nurse explicitly states that the tablets are easier to swallow and might have fewer side effects compared to the liquid medication. The focus is on improving the patient’s comfort and compliance with the medication regimen. While cost or effectiveness might be factors in other situations, they are not the primary reasons mentioned in this conversation.

13. Answer: B. Temporary flareup of dandruff.
Rationale: The pharmacist explicitly mentioned that some people might experience a slight initial increase in dandruff before it clears up when using Ketoconazole shampoo. This indicates a potential temporary worsening of dandruff as a side effect.

14. Answer: C. Difficulty in identifying anatomical structures during the procedure.
Rationale: The surgeon explicitly mentions that adhesions can distort the anatomy, making it challenging to identify structures. While increased bleeding and postoperative complications are potential concerns, the primary challenge highlighted in the conversation relates to the surgical view and accurate identification of structures, which is crucial for a successful procedure.

15. Answer: A. The reliability of pagers in critical situations is superior.
Rationale: The conversation emphasizes the reliability of pagers, especially in urgent situations. While cost and privacy are mentioned, they are secondary to the core reason for pager use: ensuring timely communication in critical care settings. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

16. Answer: B. To assist the body in utilizing glucose effectively.
Rationale: The diabetologist clearly states that insulin is a natural hormone that helps the body use glucose effectively. It’s a tool to manage the condition, not a cure. While weight management is important, it’s not the primary function of insulin in this context. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

17. Answer: C. The unexplained weight loss might indicate a serious underlying condition.
Rationale: While the doctor expresses concern about the patient’s high blood pressure and the need for potential specialist referral, the specific action of ordering blood tests is in response to the unexplained weight loss. This suggests that the doctor views the weight loss as a potentially more significant issue requiring further investigation. Therefore, the primary concern is the unexplained weight loss.

18. Answer: C. Protecting the hip implant by preventing patient mobility.
Rationale: The conversation clearly outlines the risk of dislodging the hip implant if the patient tries to get out of bed. This is identified as the most immediate and critical concern. While delirium, pain management, and oxygen saturation are important aspects of care, they are secondary to preventing implant displacement.

19. Answer: B. Delayed skin aging due to consistent sun protection
Rationale: While a low SPF offers less protection than a high SPF, frequent reapplication helps maintain a protective barrier against both UVA and UVB rays. This consistent protection can help prevent premature skin aging, even with a lower SPF. While the risk of skin cancer is always present without complete sun avoidance, the focus of the question is on the effect of sunscreen use on skin aging.

20. Answer: B. Respiratory compromise requiring intubation
Rationale: While options A and C are potential consequences, the conversation explicitly mentions the possibility of respiratory compromise as a critical concern. The nursing manager instructs the nurse to be prepared for intubation, indicating that respiratory failure is a high-risk complication of a severe seizure in this patient.

21. Answer: B. Ineffective treatment due to drug inactivation
Rationale: While infection and fluid overload are potential complications of IV therapy, the question specifically asks about the consequences of medication incompatibility. When incompatible drugs are mixed, they can interact and render each other ineffective, compromising patient treatment.

22. Answer: B. Delayed mobility and potential complications
Rationale: While infection and chronic pain are potential long-term consequences of a hip fracture, the most immediate impact on the patient’s recovery is the delay in mobility. This can lead to complications such as blood clots, pneumonia, and muscle weakness.

23. Answer: B. Higher rates of hospital-acquired infections
Rationale: The primary purpose of the stricter hand hygiene policy is to reduce the spread of infections. If not followed diligently, the risk of hospital-acquired infections would increase, potentially leading to longer hospital stays, increased morbidity, and even mortality. While increased workload and potential patient inconvenience are concerns, they are secondary to the primary goal of infection prevention.

24. Answer: A. The patient’s fall could have been prevented.
Rationale: The conversation explicitly states that the delayed response to the patient’s call bell was a contributing factor to the fall. A timely response could potentially have prevented the incident altogether. While understaffing is a concern, it’s not directly linked to the immediate cause of the fall in this case.

25. Answer: B. To reduce the severity of flu symptoms.
Rationale: The nurse explicitly states that the flu shot helps reduce the severity of flu symptoms if you do catch the flu. While it can also help prevent getting sick, the primary focus of the conversation is on mitigating the impact of the flu.

26. Answer: B. The potential for delayed symptoms to appear.
Rationale: The doctor emphasizes the importance of monitoring Mr. Patel for worsening symptoms, indicating a concern for the delayed effects of the concussion. While options A and C are potential outcomes, the conversation primarily focuses on the possibility of symptoms developing or worsening after the initial injury.

27. Answer: B. Make additional resources to manage the increased workload.
Rationale: The conversation highlights the potential need for extra clinics to handle the increased number of respiratory referrals. This suggests that additional resources, such as staff or clinic space, might be required to manage the increased workload effectively.

28. Answer: A. Increased risk of patient infection.
Rationale: The conversation highlights the concern about glove tears during patient care, which increases the risk of exposure to bodily fluids and pathogens. This directly correlates to an increased risk of patient infection. While the other options are potential issues, the primary concern is patient safety and infection prevention.

29. Answer: C. Delayed return to normal activities of daily living.
Rationale: The conversation highlights the patient’s limited progress in physiotherapy, which directly impacts his ability to regain normal mobility. This delay in recovery could hinder his ability to perform daily activities without restrictions. While options A and B are potential concerns, the conversation primarily focuses on the impact of the limited progress on the patient’s overall function.

30. Answer: B. Lead to the development of pressure sores.
Rationale: The conversation highlights the importance of preventing pressure sores through regular skin checks, position changes, and the use of pressure-relieving cushions. This indicates that prolonged wheelchair use without proper care can lead to the development of pressure sores. While options A and C are potential concerns, the primary focus of the conversation is on skincare and the prevention of pressure injuries.

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