FREE PROMETRIC EXAM QUESTIONS FOR NURSES WITH ANSWERS

1. A nurse is preparing to administer IV vancomycin. The patient’s last trough level, drawn 30 minutes before the dose, is 22 mcg/mL. What is the nurse’s most appropriate action?
A) Administer the dose as scheduled.
B) Hold the dose and notify the prescriber.
C) Administer the dose and re-draw the trough in 30 minutes.
D) Hold the dose for one hour and then administer.

2. In the immediate post-procedure period after a cardiac catheterization via the right femoral artery, which finding requires the most urgent intervention?
A) The right pedal pulse is palpable but diminished compared to the left.
B) The patient reports a pain score of 6 at the puncture site.
C) A hematoma, 2 cm in diameter, is noted at the puncture site.
D) The right foot is pale and cool to the touch.

3. A patient with cirrhosis has a distended abdomen with a positive fluid wave test. The nurse plans care prioritizing interventions for:
A) Impaired Gas Exchange.
B) Risk for Infection.
C) Excess Fluid Volume.
D) Disturbed Body Image.

4. A patient with diabetic neuropathy is being discharged. Which patient statement indicates correct understanding of foot care?
A) “I will soak my feet in warm water every evening.”
B) “I will use a heating pad if my feet feel cold at night.”
C) “I will inspect the soles of my feet daily using a mirror.”
D) “I will go barefoot at home on carpeted floors.”

5. Four hours after a total thyroidectomy, a patient develops stridor and complains of “tightness” around the incision. The nurse suspects:
A) Thyroid storm.
B) Hypocalcemic tetany.
C) Laryngeal nerve damage.
D) Postoperative hemorrhage.

6. When assessing a patient who has just had a tonic-clonic seizure, which finding is the priority for documentation and reporting?
A) Duration of the post-ictal confusion.
B) Incontinence of urine during the event.
C) The sequence and nature of limb movements.
D) Oxygen saturation level after the event.

7. A patient with suspected meningitis is admitted. Which physician’s order should the nurse carry out first?
A) Obtain blood cultures.
B) Start IV ceftriaxone.
C) Perform a lumbar puncture.
D) Administer acetaminophen for fever.

8. A patient with heart failure has a serum digoxin level of 3.2 ng/mL. Which clinical finding is most specific to digoxin toxicity?
A) Anorexia and nausea.
B) New onset of visual disturbances (yellow halos).
C) Heart rate of 52 beats/minute.
D) Generalized muscle weakness.

9. A mother brings her 3-month-old to the clinic. The infant has a weak cry, poor head control, and a persistent tonic neck reflex. The nurse is most concerned about:
A) Cerebral palsy.
B) Down syndrome.
C) Developmental hip dysplasia.
D) Normal variation.

10. A postpartum patient with a history of DVT is on prophylactic enoxaparin. She asks when she can have an epidural for a future delivery. The nurse’s best response is based on knowing:
A) Epidurals are contraindicated with any anticoagulant history.
B) She must stop enoxaparin at least 12 hours before an epidural.
C) She can have an epidural 4 hours after her last prophylactic dose.
D) Therapeutic anticoagulation is required before an epidural.

11. A patient with COPD and chronic hypercapnia is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. The nurse notes the patient is increasingly drowsy. What is the most likely cause?
A) Oxygen-induced hypoventilation.
B) Pneumothorax.
C) Medication side effect.
D) Progression of the disease.

12. The nurse is reviewing the lab results of a patient with acute kidney injury. Which finding suggests the etiology is prerenal?
A) Urine sodium 50 mEq/L.
B) BUN:Creatinine ratio of 10:1.
C) Urine specific gravity 1.005.
D) Presence of muddy brown granular casts.

13. Which patient should be assigned to the most experienced nurse in a medical ward?
A) A 45-year-old with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes.
B) A 60-year-old with heart failure, awaiting discharge teaching.
C) A 70-year-old with pneumonia, confused and pulling at the IV line.
D) A 55-year-old with stable angina for a stress test in the morning.

14. A patient with a below-the-knee cast complains of increasing pain unrelieved by elevation and medication. The nurse’s priority action is to:
A) Administer a stronger analgesic.
B) Notify the physician immediately.
C) Assess for pain characteristics and neurovascular status.
D) Reassure the patient that this is normal.

15. After a colonoscopy with polypectomy, a patient passes a large amount of bright red blood per rectum. The nurse’s first action is to:
A) Check the patient’s vital signs.
B) Prepare for a blood transfusion.
C) Notify the endoscopist.
D) Administer a prescribed PRN clotting agent.

16. A patient with severe burns is in the fluid resuscitation phase. The nurse would interpret adequate perfusion is being maintained primarily by assessing:
A) Blood pressure.
B) Urine output.
C) Level of consciousness.
D) Heart rate.

17. A nurse is mentoring a student who just administered the wrong medication but caused no harm. The student asks, “Do I have to report this?” The nurse’s best response emphasizes:
A) “No, since no harm was done, it’s a learning opportunity.”
B) “Only if the patient or family asks about it.”
C) “Yes, reporting is mandatory for safety and learning.”
D) “Let me decide after checking hospital policy.”

18. In a patient with a chest tube connected to an underwater seal drainage system, continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates:
A) Normal functioning of the system.
B) A leak in the system.
C) That the lung has fully re-expanded.
D) That suction is applied appropriately.

19. A primigravida at 39 weeks is in active labor. The fetal heart rate monitor shows a variable deceleration to 80 bpm lasting 60 seconds, with quick recovery to baseline. The nurse’s initial intervention is to:
A) Prepare for an emergency cesarean section.
B) Change the maternal position.
C) Administer oxygen via face mask.
D) Notify the obstetrician immediately.

20. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is starting methotrexate therapy. The most critical patient education point is:
A) To take the medication on an empty stomach.
B) To avoid live vaccinations.
C) To report any signs of infection immediately.
D) To use reliable contraception.

21. A patient with a history of alcohol use disorder is admitted with confusion, ataxia, and nystagmus. The nurse suspects a deficiency of:
A) Thiamine (B1).
B) Vitamin C.
C) Folic acid.
D) Vitamin B12.

22. A patient with suspected pulmonary embolism is anxious and dyspneic. Which diagnostic test does the nurse anticipate will be ordered first due to its speed and availability?
A) Pulmonary Angiography.
B) Ventilation-Perfusion (V/Q) Scan.
C) D-dimer blood test.
D) Computed Tomography Pulmonary Angiography (CTPA).

23. The nurse is assessing a patient with Addison’s disease. Which finding would be an early sign of an Addisonian crisis?
A) Hyperglycemia.
B) Severe hypotension.
C) Hyperkalemia.
D) Hyponatremia.

24. A patient with a T5 spinal cord injury complains of a severe headache and is sweating profusely above the level of injury. The nurse’s immediate action is to:
A) Administer an analgesic.
B) Check for bladder distension.
C) Lower the head of the bed.
D) Assess for signs of infection.

25. A newborn is diagnosed with esophageal atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula. The most definitive early sign the nurse would have noted is:
A) Projectile vomiting.
B) Excessive drooling and mucus.
C) Abdominal distension.
D) Cyanosis during feeding.

26. A patient with ulcerative colitis is prescribed sulfasalazine. The nurse teaches the patient to:
A) Take the medication with an antacid.
B) Increase fluid intake to 2-3 L/day.
C) Avoid sun exposure while on this drug.
D) Expect orange-colored urine.

27. A patient with myasthenia gravis is scheduled for a tensilon (edrophonium) test. What is the priority equipment to have at the bedside?
A) Suction equipment.
B) Atropine sulfate.
C) A defibrillator.
D) A blood pressure cuff.

28. During a home visit, a nurse sees an elderly client with Parkinson’s disease heating soup on the stove. The client’s hand tremors are significant. The most appropriate nursing action is to:
A) Recommend the client use a microwave instead.
B) Supervise the client while they finish cooking.
C) Suggest home-delivered meals.
D) Contact the family to provide supervision.

29. A patient receiving a unit of packed red blood cells develops urticaria and itching. The patient is hemodynamically stable. After stopping the transfusion, the nurse should:
A) Administer IV hydrocortisone.
B) Administer IV furosemide.
C) Administer prescribed diphenhydramine.
D) Increase the IV fluid rate.

30. A patient with suspected internal bleeding has a hemoglobin of 7.8 g/dL. The nurse prepares to administer packed RBCs. Which IV solution is safe to use with the blood transfusion?
A) 5% Dextrose in Water (D5W).
B) 0.9% Sodium Chloride (Normal Saline).
C) Lactated Ringer’s.
D) 5% Dextrose in 0.45% Saline.

31. A patient with a history of falls attempts to get out of bed without assistance. The nurse’s most therapeutic response is:
A) “You must call for help before getting up. It’s for your safety.”
B) “Let me help you back to bed. What did you need?”
C) “I’m putting the bed alarm on so you can’t get up alone.”
D) “You remember what happened last time you fell?”

32. A patient with schizophrenia is prescribed clozapine. The nurse knows the most critical monitoring required is for:
A) Tardive dyskinesia.
B) Agranulocytosis.
C) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome.
D) Orthostatic hypotension.

33. A toddler with measles (rubeola) is admitted. The nurse implements:
A) Contact and Droplet Precautions.
B) Standard Precautions only.
C) Airborne and Contact Precautions.
D) Protective Isolation.

34. A patient is receiving IV gentamicin. Which finding indicates potential ototoxicity?
A) Vertigo and tinnitus.
B) Pedal edema.
C) Photosensitivity.
D) Red man syndrome.

35. A nurse is preparing to suction a patient with a tracheostomy. The correct procedure includes:
A) Applying suction during insertion of the catheter.
B) Using sterile technique for a *new* tracheostomy.
C) Hyperoxygenating before and after suctioning.
D) Suctioning for a maximum of 30 seconds.

36. A patient with a peptic ulcer is found to be positive for *H. pylori*. The nurse anticipates a treatment regimen that includes:
A) A single high-dose antibiotic.
B) Dual therapy with two antibiotics.
C) Triple therapy with two antibiotics and a PPI.
D) Long-term H2 receptor antagonist use.

37. After a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the patient complains of referred pain in the right shoulder. The nurse explains this is due to:
A) Nerve damage during surgery.
B) Remaining gas in the abdominal cavity.
C) Incisional strain.
D) A common bile duct injury.

38. A patient with chronic liver disease has asterixis. To assess for this, the nurse should ask the patient to:
A) Stick out the tongue.
B) Hold the arms outstretched with wrists dorsiflexed.
C) Touch the nose with the index finger.
D) Count backwards from 100.

39. A patient with gout is prescribed allopurinol. The nurse’s teaching should include:
A) Take the medication at the first sign of an acute attack.
B) Increase purine-rich foods in the diet.
C) Discontinue the medication when pain subsides.
D) Drink 2-3 liters of fluid daily.

40. The nurse is reviewing the prenatal chart of a Rh-negative mother. To prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn, Rho(D) immune globulin is typically administered at:
A) 28 weeks gestation and within 72 hours postpartum.
B) 12 weeks gestation and after delivery.
C) 36 weeks gestation only.
D) Only if the newborn is Rh-positive.

41. In a patient with suspected increased intracranial pressure (ICP), which order should the nurse question?
A) Elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees.
B) Administer IV morphine sulphate for pain.
C) Maintain PaCO2 at 30-35 mmHg.
D) Administer IV mannitol for acute rises in ICP.

42. A patient with advanced HIV has oral candidiasis. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for oral care?
A) Use lemon-glycerin swabs.
B) Use a soft toothbrush and normal saline.
C) Scrape the lesions with a tongue depressor.
D) Rinse with full-strength hydrogen peroxide.

43. A patient with a permanent pacemaker is scheduled for an MRI. The nurse’s action is to:
A) Prepare the patient as usual; modern pacemakers are MRI-safe.
B) Inform the radiology department about the pacemaker.
C) Obtain a magnet to place over the pacemaker during the scan.
D) Clarify with the physician as pacemakers are usually a contraindication.

44. A nurse is delegating the task of taking vital signs for a stable patient to a nursing assistant. What specific instruction is crucial if the patient is receiving a beta-blocker?
A) “Take the blood pressure in both arms.”
B) “Count the apical pulse for a full minute.”
C) “Check for orthostatic hypotension.”
D) “Use a tympanic thermometer for accuracy.”

45. A patient with a below-knee ampathy complains of phantom limb pain. An appropriate nursing intervention is:
A) Explain that the pain is not real and will fade.
B) Administer PRN analgesics as prescribed.
C) Gently massage the residual limb.
D) Encourage use of a mirror box therapy.

46. A patient with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propylthiouracil (PTU). The nurse should teach the patient to report immediately:
A) Weight gain.
B) Sore throat and fever.
C) Mild skin rash.
D) Increased appetite.

47. A 2-day postpartum breastfed newborn has a bilirubin level of 16 mg/dL. The nurse prepares for which primary treatment?
A) Exchange transfusion.
B) Intravenous immunoglobulin.
C) Phototherapy.
D) Early and frequent feeding.

48. A patient is receiving high-dose IV steroids. Which lab value requires close monitoring?
A) Serum creatinine.
B) Serum potassium.
C) Blood glucose.
D) Hemoglobin.

49. The nurse is assessing a patient with possible compartment syndrome in the forearm. The earliest sign is:
A) Pallor.
B) Paralysis.
C) Paresthesia (tingling).
D) Pulselessness.

50. A patient with bipolar disorder, manic phase, has not slept for 48 hours. The priority nursing intervention is to:
A) Provide a high-calorie finger food diet.
B) Engage in vigorous physical activity to tire them.
C) Implement measures to promote sleep.
D) Discuss the consequences of their behavior.

51. A patient with end-stage renal disease on hemodialysis has a serum phosphate level of 6.5 mg/dL. The nurse anticipates administration of:
A) Calcium gluconate IV.
B) Oral phosphate binders with meals.
C) Vitamin D supplements.
D) IV normal saline.

52. A patient with a nasogastric tube on low intermittent suction is also receiving IV pantoprazole. The nurse understands this drug is given to:
A) Reduce gastric acid secretion.
B) Prevent stress ulcers.
C) Decrease gastric motility.
D) Treat a possible *H. pylori* infection.

53. A nurse is preparing to assist with a paracentesis. Positioning the patient in high-Fowler’s primarily helps to:
A) Prevent aspiration.
B) Allow the intestines to fall away from the puncture site.
C) Reduce shortness of breath.
D) Make the patient more comfortable.

54. A postmenopausal woman not on HRT is at highest risk for developing:
A) Osteoarthritis.
B) Rheumatoid arthritis.
C) Osteoporosis.
D) Osteomalacia.

55. A patient with a history of asthma is prescribed propranolol for hypertension. The nurse should:
A) Administer the drug and monitor for wheezing.
B) Question the order with the prescriber.
C) Teach the patient to check peak flow regularly.
D) Administer a bronchodilator first.

56. During a well-baby visit, the mother of a 6-month-old says she will start giving cow’s milk. The nurse’s best response is:
A) “That’s fine, as long as it’s whole milk.”
B) “Cow’s milk should not be the main drink until 12 months.”
C) “You should dilute it with water first.”
D) “Switch to skim milk to avoid obesity.”

57. A patient with Cushing’s syndrome is most at risk for:
A) Hypoglycemia.
B) Hypotension.
C) Infection.
D) Weight loss.

58. A patient is being discharged with warfarin. Which food should the nurse advise the patient to consume in consistent amounts?
A) Citrus fruits.
B) Green leafy vegetables.
C) Dairy products.
D) Red meat.

59. A nurse observes a colleague taking a controlled substance for personal use. The nurse’s ethical obligation is to:
A) Confront the colleague privately.
B) Report the observation to the supervisor.
C) Ignore it as it’s not affecting patient care.
D) Document it in the colleague’s file.

60. A patient with a head injury has clear fluid draining from the nose. The nurse should:
A) Test the fluid for glucose.
B) Plug the nostril with sterile gauze.
C) Suction the nostril frequently.
D) Place the patient in Trendelenburg position.

61. A patient with peripheral arterial disease (PAD) experiences intermittent claudication. The nurse’s teaching should include:
A) “Rest until the pain completely subsides before walking again.”
B) “Walk to the point of pain, rest, then walk again.”
C) “Elevate your legs when the pain occurs.”
D) “Apply a heating pad to your legs.”

62. A primipara at 10 cm dilation starts shaking uncontrollably. She is afebrile. The nurse interprets this as:
A) A sign of infection.
B) A reaction to epidural anesthesia.
C) A normal physiological transition phase response.
D) Hypoglycemia.

63. A patient with bulimia nervosa is at greatest risk for an electrolyte imbalance leading to:
A) Metabolic acidosis.
B) Cardiac arrhythmias.
C) Renal failure.
D) Seizures.

64. A patient has just returned from a total hip replacement. To prevent dislocation, the nurse should maintain the leg in:
A) Adduction and internal rotation.
B) Abduction and neutral rotation.
C) Flexion at the hip.
D) A dependent position.

65. The nurse is auscultating the lungs of a patient with left-sided heart failure. Crackles are most likely heard:
A) At the lung apices.
B) Laterally at the bases.
C) In the right mid-clavicular line.
D) At the left lung base.

66. A patient with type 1 diabetes is planning a long-distance run. The nurse advises them to:
A) Avoid taking their usual morning insulin.
B) Increase carbohydrate intake before and during the run.
C) Run on an empty stomach for better performance.
D) Check blood sugar only after the run.

67. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is using pursed-lip breathing. The primary purpose of this technique is to:
A) Strengthen the diaphragm.
B) Promote carbon dioxide elimination.
C) Increase inspiratory muscle force.
D) Prevent airway collapse.

68. A patient with a panic disorder is hyperventilating. The immediate nursing action is to:
A) Administer PRN lorazepam.
B) Have the patient breathe into a paper bag.
C) Place the patient in a recumbent position.
D) Provide reassurance and coach slow breathing.

69. A patient has a serum sodium level of 118 mEq/L. The nurse should be alert for:
A) Muscle weakness and fatigue.
B) Seizures and confusion.
C) Thirst and dry mucous membranes.
D) Bradycardia and hypotension.

70. A newborn is diagnosed with congenital hypothyroidism. The most important long-term consequence of delayed treatment is:
A) Hearing loss.
B) Intellectual disability.
C) Growth hormone deficiency.
D) Visual impairment.

71. A nurse is calculating a dopamine drip (400 mg in 250 mL D5W) to run at 5 mcg/kg/min for a 70 kg patient. The infusion rate in mL/hr should be:
A) 10.5 mL/hr.
B) 13.1 mL/hr.
C) 15.0 mL/hr.
D) 17.5 mL/hr.

72. A patient with a peritoneal dialysis catheter reports cloudy effluent and mild abdominal pain. The nurse suspects:
A) Catheter malfunction.
B) Peritonitis.
C) Hypervolemia.
D) Hypoglycemia.

73. In planning care for a patient with major depression, the highest priority is addressing:
A) Poor nutrition.
B) Social isolation.
C) Risk for suicide.
D) Sleep disturbance.

74. A patient has a platelet count of 15,000/mm³. The most appropriate nursing intervention is to:
A) Implement neutropenic precautions.
B) Avoid intramuscular injections.
C) Encourage ambulation to prevent DVT.
D) Monitor for signs of infection.

75. A patient recovering from a stroke has left-sided neglect. An appropriate nursing strategy is to:
A) Place the call bell on the left side.
B) Approach the patient from the right side.
C) Provide all care from the left side.
D) Restrain the left arm to prevent injury.

76. A patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) should be taught to:
A) Increase sun exposure to boost vitamin D.
B) Use a high SPF sunscreen daily.
C) Limit fluid intake to reduce edema.
D) Avoid all forms of exercise.

77. During a home visit, the nurse notices multiple bruises in various stages of healing on an elderly client. The client is vague about how they happened. The nurse’s first action is to:
A) Confront the suspected caregiver immediately.
B) Document the findings and report to adult protective services.
C) Ask the client directly if someone is hurting them.
D) Notify the client’s physician.

78. A patient with a history of alcohol dependence is prescribed disulfiram. The nurse’s teaching must emphasize the danger of consuming any:
A) Caffeine.
B) Artificial sweeteners.
C) Alcohol (including OTC products).
D) Tyramine-rich foods.

79. A patient is scheduled for an electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) treatment. Pre-procedure, the nurse ensures:
A) The patient has had a full meal.
B) Informed consent is documented.
C) An oral airway is placed.
D) The patient is fully sedated.

80. A patient with a pneumothorax has a chest tube attached to suction. The water in the suction control chamber is:
A) Not bubbling.
B) Bubbling gently and continuously.
C) Bubbling only on inspiration.
D) Rising with inspiration.

81. A patient with trigeminal neuralgia should be advised to:
A) Apply warm compresses to the face.
B) Chew on the unaffected side.
C) Perform vigorous facial exercises.
D) Drink very hot or cold beverages.

82. The nurse is preparing to administer eye drops. Correct technique includes:
A) Placing drops directly onto the cornea.
B) Applying pressure to the inner canthus for 1-2 minutes.
C) Wiping from the outer to the inner canthus.
D) Having the patient look up, and placing drops in the lower conjunctival sac.

83. A mother asks when her infant should receive the first dose of the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine. The nurse correctly answers:
A) At birth.
B) At 6 months.
C) At 12 months.
D) At 18 months.

84. A patient with a deep vein thrombosis is on a heparin infusion. The therapeutic goal is to keep the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT):
A) 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value.
B) Within normal range.
C) 2.5 to 3.5 times the control value.
D) Below the control value.

85. A patient with severe anemia is receiving a blood transfusion. One hour in, the patient’s temperature is 38.9°C. The nurse should:
A) Slow the infusion and give an antipyretic.
B) Stop the transfusion and notify the physician.
C) Continue the transfusion; this is a mild reaction.
D) Apply a cooling blanket.

86. A patient with a terminal illness tells the nurse, “I’m a burden to my family. It would be better if I just died in my sleep.” The nurse’s best response is:
A) “You have so much to live for.”
B) “You shouldn’t think that way.”
C) “It sounds like you’re feeling overwhelmed. Would you like to talk?”
D) “I’ll ask the doctor to adjust your medication.”

87. A patient with acute pancreatitis should be placed on:
A) A low-fat, high-protein diet.
B) NPO status initially.
C) Clear liquids only.
D) Total parenteral nutrition.

88. A patient is recovering from a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Continuous bladder irrigation is running. The nurse is concerned about possible obstruction if:
A) The drainage is clear with occasional clots.
B) The drainage is dark red.
C) The patient complains of bladder spasms.
D) The inflow rate exceeds the outflow rate.

89. A patient with a history of seizures is found on the floor. After ensuring safety and assessing airway, the nurse should:
A) Place a tongue depressor in the mouth.
B) Restrain the patient’s limbs.
C) Time the duration of the seizure.
D) Administer PRN diazepam immediately.

90. A nurse is caring for a patient with active tuberculosis. The most appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) is:
A) Gloves and gown.
B) Gloves, gown, and surgical mask.
C) N95 respirator (or higher).
D) Standard Precautions only.

91. A patient with a fractured femur develops sudden dyspnea, tachycardia, and chest pain. The nurse’s immediate action is to:
A) Administer morphine.
B) Apply oxygen.
C) Increase the IV fluid rate.
D) Perform neurovascular checks.

92. A patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. The nurse should instruct the patient to discontinue the medication and report before:
A) A fasting blood glucose test.
B) Surgery or a procedure using IV contrast dye.
C) Starting a new exercise regimen.
D) Experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia.

93. A full-term newborn has acrocyanosis. The nurse interprets this as:
A) A sign of congenital heart disease.
B) A normal finding.
C) A sign of cold stress.
D) A symptom of sepsis.

94. A patient with a history of mitral valve stenosis is at increased risk for:
A) Left ventricular hypertrophy.
B) Atrial fibrillation.
C) Systemic hypertension.
D) Right-sided heart failure.

95. The nurse is teaching a patient about using nitroglycerin sublingual tablets for angina. Correct instruction includes:
A) “Take one tablet every 5 minutes until pain is relieved, up to 3 tablets.”
B) “Swallow the tablet with a full glass of water.”
C) “If pain is not relieved after 15 minutes, take a double dose.”
D) “Store the tablets in a clear bottle in the bathroom.”

96. A patient with a colostomy asks when the stoma will reach its permanent size. The nurse replies:
A) “It will shrink significantly in 2 weeks.”
B) “It will reach its final size in about 6-8 weeks.”
C) “It will continue to enlarge for a year.”
D) “The size you see now is permanent.”

97. A patient is receiving IV amphotericin B. To reduce the severity of a common side effect, the nurse should pre-medicate with:
A) An antihistamine and antipyretic.
B) An antiemetic.
C) A bronchodilator.
D) A stool softener.

98. A patient with a spinal cord injury at C4 is at greatest risk for:
A) Autonomic dysreflexia.
B) Neurogenic shock.
C) Impaired physical mobility.
D) Ineffective breathing pattern.

99. A nurse is assessing for Homans’ sign in a patient with calf pain. A positive sign is:
A) Calf pain on dorsiflexion of the foot.
B) Calf redness and warmth.
C) Pitting edema in the ankle.
D) Diminished pedal pulse.

100. A patient with chronic pain is on a transdermal fentanyl patch. The nurse teaches that the patch should be changed:
A) Every 24 hours.
B) Every 48 hours.
C) Every 72 hours.
D) Once a week.