NMC CBT QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS PART – 1

1: What is the role of the NMC?
A) To represent or campaign on behalf of nurses and midwives
B) To regulate hospitals or other healthcare settings in the UK
C) To regulate health care assistants
D) To regulate nurses and midwives in the UK to protect the public

2: What is the purpose of the NMC Code?
A) It outlines specific tasks or clinical procedures
B) It ascertains in detail a nurse’s or midwife’s clinical expertise
C) It is a tool for educating prospective nurses and midwives
D) It sets standards that nurses and midwives must uphold to protect the public

3: All are purposes of NMC except:
A) NMC’s role is to regulate nurses and midwives in England, Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland.
B) It sets standards of education, training, conduct, and performance so that nurses and midwives can deliver high-quality healthcare throughout their careers.
C) It makes sure that nurses and midwives keep their skills and knowledge up to date and uphold professional standards.
D) It is responsible for regulating hospitals or other healthcare settings.

4: The UK regulator for nursing & midwifery professions within the UK with a stated aim to protect the health & well-being of the public is:
A) GMC
B) NMC
C) BMC
D) WHC

5: Which of the following agencies set the standards of education, training conduct, and performance for nurses and midwives in the UK?
A) NMC
B) DH
C) CQC
D) RCN

6: What do you mean by the code of ethics?
A) Legal activities of a registered nurse who works in the UK
B) Legislative body to control nurses
C) A set of professional principles that guide practice
D) A document outlining hospital policies

7: The Code contains the professional standards that registered nurses and midwives must uphold. What 4 Key areas does the code cover?
A) Prioritise people, practice effectively, preserve safety, promote professionalism and trust
B) Prioritise people, practice safely, preserve dignity, promote professionalism and trust
C) Prioritise care, practice effectively, preserve security, promote professionalism and trust
D) Prioritise care, practice safely, preserve security, promote kindness and trust

8: NMC requires in the UK how many continuing education units a nurse should have in 3 years.
A) 35 Hours
B) 45 Hours
C) 55 Hours
D) 65 Hours

9: The code is the foundation of
A) Dress code
B) Personal document
C) Good nursing & midwifery practice & a key tool in safeguarding the health & well-being of the public
D) Hospital administration

10: According to the NMC Standards Code and Conduct, a registered nurse is EXCLUDED from legal action in which one of these?
A) Fixed penalty for speeding
B) Possessing stock medications
C) Convicted for fraud
D) Convicted for theft

11: The NMC Code expects nurses to safeguard the health and well-being of the public through the use of the best available evidence in practice. Which of the following nursing actions will ensure this?
A) Using isopropyl alcohol 70% to wipe the skin before cannulation
B) Suggesting healthcare products or services that are still trialed
C) Ensure that the use of complementary or alternative therapies is safe and in the best interest of those in your care
D) All of the above

12: Among the following values incorporated in NMC’s 6 C’s, which is not included?
A) Care
B) Courage
C) Confidentiality
D) Communication

13: Which of the following is NOT one of the six fundamental values for nursing, midwifery, and care staff set out in Compassion in Practice?
A) Care
B) Consideration
C) Communication
D) Compassion

14: A nurse delegates duty to a health assistant, what NMC standard should she keep in mind while doing this?
A) She transfers the accountability to the care assistant
B) The RN is accountable for the care assistant’s actions
C) No need to assess the competency, as the care assistant is an expert in her care area
D) The healthcare assistant is accountable to only her senior

15: According to the law in England, the UK when faced with a situation of emergency what is your action?
A) Should not assist when it is outside of the work environment
B) Law insists you to stop and assist
C) You are not obliged in any way but as a professional duty advise you to stop and assist
D) Do not involve in the situation

16: A patient has been assessed as lacking the capacity to make their own decisions, what government legislation or act should be referred to:
A) Health and Social Care Act (2012)
B) Mental Capacity Act (2005)
C) Carers (Equal Opportunities) Act (2004)
D) All of the above

17: Under the Carers (Equal Opportunities) Act (2004) what are carers entitled to?
A) Their own assessment
B) Financial support
C) Respite care
D) All of the above

18: How many steps to discharge planning were identified by the Department of Health (DH 2010)?
A) 5 steps
B) 8 steps
C) 10 steps
D) 12 steps

19: The single assessment process was introduced as part of the National Service Framework for Older People (DH 2001) to improve care for this group of patients.
A) True
B) False

20: Which law provides communication aid to patients with a disability?
A) Communication Act
B) Equality Act
C) Mental Capacity Act
D) Children and Family Act

21: Mental Capacity Act 2005 explores which of the following concepts:
A) Mental capacity, advanced treatment decisions, and act’s code of practice
B) Mental capacity, independent mental capacity advocates, and the act’s code of practice
C) Mental capacity, advance treatment decisions, independent mental capacity advocates, and the act’s code of practice
D) Mental capacity and the possible ethical and legal dilemmas in its interpretation.

22: An inquiry was launched involving the death of one of your patients. The police visited your unit to investigate. When interviewed, which of the following frameworks will best help assist the investigation?
A) Data Protection Act 2005
B) Storage of Records Policy
C) Consent policy
D) Confidentiality guidelines

23: Which of the following statements is false?
A) Abuse mostly happens in nursing and residential homes.
B) Abuse can take place anywhere there is a vulnerable adult.
C) Abuse can take place in a daycare center.
D) Abuse can be carried out by anyone – doctors, nurses, carers, and even family members.

24: During the day, Mrs. X sits on a chair and has a table put in front of her to stop her from getting up and walking about. What type of abuse is this?
A) Physical Abuse
B) Psychological Abuse
C) Emotional Abuse
D) Discriminatory Abuse

25: Michael feels very uncomfortable when the carer visiting him always kisses him and holds him tightly when he arrives and leaves his home. What type of abuse is this?
A) Emotional Abuse
B) Psychological Abuse
C) Discriminatory Abuse
D) Sexual Abuse

26: Anna has been told that unless she does what the ward staff tell her, the consultant will stop her family from visiting. What type of abuse is this?
A) Psychological Abuse
B) Discriminatory Abuse
C) Institutional Abuse
D) Neglect

27: Christine cannot get herself a drink because of her disability. Her carers only give her drinks three times a day so she does not wet herself. What type of abuse is this?
A) Physical Abuse
B) Institutional Abuse
C) Neglect
D) Sexual Abuse

28: Gabriella is a 26-year-old woman with severe learning disabilities… What could possibly be the type of abuse Gabriella is experiencing?
A) Discriminatory Abuse
B) Financial Abuse
C) Sexual Abuse
D) Institutional Abuse

29: …the management wants all residents to be up and about by 8:30 am… What type of abuse is in place?
A) Financial Abuse
B) Psychological Abuse
C) Sexual Abuse
D) Institutional Abuse

30: A patient asking for LAMA, the medical team has concerns about the mental capacity of the patient, what decision should be made?
A) call the police
B) call the security
C) let the patient go
D) encourage the patient to wait by telling them the need for treatment

31: You are a registered nurse in a community giving health education… and you notice that the student nurse is using his cell phone to text, what should you do?
A) Tell the student to leave and emphasize what a disappointment she is
B) Report the student to his Instructor after duty
C) Politely signal the student and encourage him by actively including him in the discussion
D) Ignore the behavior

32: A person supervising a nursing student in the clinical area is called as:
A) mentor
B) preceptor
C) interceptor
D) supervisor

33: Training of student nurses is the responsibility of:
A) Ward in charge
B) Senior nurses
C) Team leaders
D) All RNS

34: You can delegate medication administration to a student if:
A) The student was assessed as competent
B) Only under close, direct supervision
C) The patient has only oral medication
D) Never delegate medication administration to a student

35: A community health nurse, with second-year nursing students… The nurse notices that the student… is chatting on her phone. Ideal response?
A) Ask the student to leave the group
B) Warn her in public that such behaviors are not accepted
C) Inform the principal
D) Talk to her in private and make her aware that such behaviors could actually belittle the profession

36: In supervising a student nurse performing a drug round, the NMC expects you to do the following at all times:
A) supervise the entire procedure and sign the chart
B) allow the student to give drugs and sign the chart at the end of the shift
C) delegate the supervision of the student to a senior nursing assistant and ask for feedback
D) allow the student to observe but not sign on the chart

37: A nurse preceptor is working with a new nurse and notes that the new nurse is reluctant to delegate tasks to members of the care team. The nurse preceptor recognizes that this reluctance most likely is due to
A) Role modeling behaviors of the preceptor
B) The philosophy of the new nurse’s school of nursing
C) The orientation provided to the new nurse
D) Lack of trust in the team members

38: Being a student, observing the insertion of an ICD in the clinical setting. This is
A) Formal learning
B) Informal learning

39: When you tell a 3rd-year student under your care to dispense medication to your patient what will you assess?
A) Whether s/he is able to give medicine
B) Whether s/he is under your same employment
C) His/her competence and skills
D) Supervise directly

40: You are mentoring a 3rd-year student nurse; the student requests that she wants to assist with a procedure with the tissue viability nurse. How can you deal with this situation?
A) Tell her it is not possible
B) Tell her it is possible if you provide direct supervision
C) Call the college and ask whether it is possible for a 3rd student to assist with the procedure
D) Allow her as this is part of her learning

41: A registered nurse is a preceptor for a new nursing graduate and describes critical paths and variance analysis to the new nursing graduate. The registered nurse instructs the new nursing graduate that a variance analysis is performed on all clients:
A) Continuously
B) Daily during hospitalization
C) Every third day of hospitalization
D) Every other day of hospitalization

42: …The student nurse tells you that the HCA has pushed the client back to the chair… What is your action?
A) Report the HCA to the manager immediately
B) Speak to the HCA to get their side of the story
C) Observe the HCA’s practice directly
D) Reassure the student and tell her she may have misunderstood

43: Who is responsible for the overall assessment of the student’s fitness to practice and documentation… in the Ongoing Achievement Record (OAR)?
A) The mentor
B) The charge nurse/manager
C) Any registered nurse on the same part of the register
D) The university link lecturer

44: What is the minimum length of time that a student must be supervised (directly/indirectly) by the mentor on placement?
A) 40%
B) 60%
C) Not specified, but as much as possible
D) Depends on the student’s capabilities

45: Which student requires a Sign-off Mentor (SOM)?
A) All consolidation students who started an NMC-approved undergraduate program which commenced after September 2007.
B) Learners undertaking conversion courses
C) Students on their final placement in 2nd year
D) Nurses/midwives undertaking Mentorship Preparations
E) All midwifery pre-registration students throughout the training
F) Nurses/midwives undertaking SOM Preparation.

46: A nurse educator is providing in-service education… regarding transcultural nursing care… describe the concept of acculturation.
A) It is a subjective perspective of the person’s heritage and sense of belonging to a group
B) It is a group of individuals in a society that is culturally distinct and has a unique identity
C) It is a process of learning a different culture to adapt to a new or change in the environment
D) It is a group that shares some of the characteristics of the larger population group of which it is a part

47: You are the nurse in charge of the unit and you are accompanied by 4th-year nursing students.
A) Allow students to give meds
B) Assess the competence of the student
C) Get consent from the patient
D) Have direct supervision

48: …you have noticed one of your patients coughing more frequently while being assisted by a nursing student at mealtime. What is your initial action?
A) Tell the student to feed the patient slowly to help stop coughing
B) Ask the student to completely stop feeding
C) Ask the student to allow the patient some sips of water to stop coughing
D) Ask the student to stop feeding and assess the patient’s swallowing

49: According to the Royal Marsden Manual, a staff who observes the removal of chest drainage is considered as?
A) Official training
B) Unofficial training
C) Hours which are not calculated as training hours
D) It is calculated as prescribed training hours.

50: To whom should you delegate a task?
A) Someone who you trust
B) Someone who is competent
C) Someone who you work with regularly
D) All of the above

51: Which of the following is an important principle of delegation?
A) No transfer of authority exists when delegating
B) Delegation is the same as work allocation
C) Responsibility is not transferred with delegation
D) When delegating, you must transfer authority

52: A staff nurse has delegated the ambulating of a new post-op patient to a new staff nurse. Which of the following situations exhibits the final stage in the process of delegation?
A) Having the new nurse tell the physician the task has been completed.
B) Supervising the performance of the new nurse
C) Telling the unit manager, the task has been completed
D) Documenting that the task has been completed.

53: Which of the following is a specific benefit to an organization when delegation is carried out effectively?
A) Delegates gain new skills facilitating upward mobility
B) The client feels more of their needs are met
C) Managers devote more time to tasks that cannot be delegated
D) The organization benefits by achieving its goals more efficiently

54: The measurement and documentation of vital signs are expected for clients in a long-term facility. Which staff type would it be a priority to delegate these tasks to?
A) Practical Nurse
B) Registered Nurse
C) Nursing assistant
D) Volunteer

55: Which task should be assigned to the nursing assistant?
A) Placing the client in seclusion
B) Emptying the Foley catheter for the pre-eclamptic client
C) Feeding the client with dementia
D) Ambulating the client with a fractured hip

56: Independent Advocacy is:
A) Providing general advice
B) Making decisions for someone
C) Care and support work
D) Agreeing with everything a person says and doing anything a person asks you to do
E) None of the above

57: What is meant by an advocate?
A) Someone who develops opportunities for the patient
B) Someone who has the same beliefs as the patient
C) Someone who does something on behalf of the patient
D) Someone who has the same values as the patient.

58: A Nurse demonstrates patient advocacy by becoming involved in which of the following activities?
A) Taking a public stand on quality issues and educating the public on” public interest” issues
B) Teaching in a school of nursing to help decrease the nursing shortage
C) Engaging in nursing research to justify nursing care delivery
D) Supporting the status quo when changes are pending

59: In the role of patient advocate, the nurse would do which of the following?
A) Emphasize the need for cost-containment measures when making healthcare decisions
B) Override a patient’s decision when the patient refuses the recommended treatment
C) Support a patient’s decision, even if it is not the decision desired by the nurse
D) Foster patient dependence on healthcare providers for decision making

60: What is Advocacy according to NHS Trust?
A) It is taking action to help people say what they want, secure their rights, represent their interests, and obtain the services they need.
B) This is the divulging or provision of access to data
C) It is the response to the suffering of others that motivates a desire to help
D) It is a set of rules or promises that limits access or places restrictions on certain types of information.

61: A nurse is caring for a patient with end-stage lung disease… The nurse is acting as the patient’s:
A) Educator
B) Advocate
C) Caregiver
D) Case manager

62: A patient with a learning disability is accompanied by a voluntary independent mental capacity advocate. What is his role?
A) Express patients’ needs and wishes. Acts as a patient’s representative in expressing their concerns as if they were his own
B) Just to accompany the patient
C) To make decisions on the patient’s behalf and provide their own judgments as this benefits the client
D) Is an expert and represents clients’ concerns, wishes, and views they cannot express by themselves

63: A client experiences an episode of pulmonary edema because the nurse forgot to administer the morning dose of furosemide (Lasix). Which legal element can the nurse be charged with?
A) Assault
B) Slander
C) Negligence
D) Tort

64: The client is being involuntarily committed to the psychiatric unit after threatening to kill his spouse and children. The involuntary commitment is an example of what bioethical principle?
A) Fidelity
B) Veracity
C) Autonomy
D) Beneficence

65: What is accountability?
A) Ethical and moral obligations permeating the nursing profession
B) To be answerable to oneself and others for one’s actions.
C) A systematic approach to maintaining and improving the quality of patient care within a health system (NHS).
D) The process of applying knowledge and expertise to a clinical situation to develop a solution

66: According to the nursing code of ethics, the nurse’s first allegiance is to the:
A) Client and client’s family
B) Client only
C) Healthcare organization
D) Physician

67: Which option best illustrates a positive outcome for managed care?
A) Involvement in the political process.
B) Reshaping current policy.
C) Cost-benefit analysis.
D) Increase in preventive services

68: While at an outside setup what care will you give as a Nurse if you are exposed to a situation?
A) Provide care that is at the expected level
B) Above what is expected
C) Ignoring the situation
D) Keeping up with professional standards

69: As a nurse, the people in your care must be able to trust you… you must not:
A) Work with others to protect and promote the health and wellbeing of those in your care
B) Provide a high standard of practice and care when required
C) Always act lawfully, whether those laws relate to your professional practice or personal life
D) Be personally accountable for actions and omissions in your practice

70: Describe the primary focus of a manager in a knowledge work environment.
A) Developing the most effective teams
B) Taking risks.
C) Routine work
D) Understanding the history of the organization.

71: In using social media like Facebook, how will you best adhere to your Code of Conduct as a nurse? (CHOOSE 2 ANSWERS)
A) Never have a relationship with a previous patient
B) Never post pictures concerning your practice
C) Never tell you are a nurse
D) Always rely SOLELY on your FB’s privacy setting

72: Which strategy could the nurse use to avoid disparity in health care delivery?
A) Recognize the cultural issues related to patient care
B) Request more health plan options
C) Care for more patients even if quality suffers
D) Campaign for fixed nurse-patient ratios

73: In an emergency department, a doctor asked you to do the procedure of cannulation and left the ward. You haven’t done it before. What would you do?
A) Don’t do it as you are not competent or trained for that & write an incident report & inform the supervisor
B) Do it
C) Ask your colleague to do it
D) Complain to the supervisor that the doctor left you in the middle of the procedure

74: NMC defines record-keeping as all of the following except:
A) Helping to improve advocacy
B) Showing how decisions related to patient care were made
C) Supporting effective clinical judgments and decisions
D) Helping in identifying risks, and enabling the early detection of complications

75: When do we need to document?
A) As soon as possible after an event has happened provide current up-to-date information about the care and condition of the patient or client
B) Every hour
C) When there are significant changes to the patient’s condition
D) At the end of the shift

76: All should be seen in good documentation except:
A) Legible handwriting
B) Name and signature, position, date and time
C) Abbreviations, jargon, meaningless phrases, irrelevant speculation, and offensive subjective statements
D) A correct, consistent, and factual data

77: A nurse documented on the wrong chart. What should the nurse do?
A) Immediately inform the nurse in charge and tell her to cross it all off.
B) Throw away the page
C) Write a line above the writing; put your name, job title, date, and time.
D) Ignore the incident.

78: After finding the patient, which statement would be most appropriate for the nurse to document on a data/incident form?
A) “The patient climbed over the side rails and fell out of bed.”
B) “The use of restraints would have prevented the fall.”
C) “Upon entering the room, the patient was found lying on the floor.”
D) “The use of a sedative would have helped keep the patient in bed.”

79: Information can be disclosed in all cases except:
A) When effectively anonymized.
B) When the information is required by law or under a court order.
C) In identifiable form when it is required for a specific purpose, with the individual’s written consent or with support under the Health Service
D) In Child Protection proceedings if it is considered that the information required is in the public or child’s interest

80: Adequate record-keeping for a medical device should provide evidence of:
A) A unique identifier for the device, where appropriate
B) A full history, including the date of purchase and where appropriate when it was put into use, deployed, or installed
C) Any specific legal requirements and whether these have been met
D) Proper installation and where it was deployed
E) Schedule and details of maintenance and repairs
F) The end-of-life date, if specified
G) All of the above

81: A registered nurse had a very busy day… she had documented in another patient’s record. What is the best response of the nurse?
A) She should continue documenting in the same file as the medical document cannot be corrected
B) She should tear the page from the file & start documenting in the correct record
C) She should put a straight cut over her documentation & write it as wrong, sign it with her NMC code, date, and time
D) She should write as wrong documentation in a bracket & continue

82: Barbara, a frail lady who lives alone with her cat, was brought into A&E… Barbara told you she is worried about her cat… How will you best reply to her?
A) “You should worry about yourself and not the cat.”
B) “Your cat sounded very dear to you. Can I ask your neighbor to check?”
C) “Do you want me to see your cat also? I cannot do that now.”
D) “Your cat can look after itself, I am sure.”

83: What are essential competencies for today’s nurse manager?
A) Strategic planning and design
B) Self and group awareness
C) A vision and goals
D) Communication and teamwork

84: There have been several patient complaints that the staff members of the unit are disorganized and that “no one seems to know what to do or when to do it.” …Which type of leadership is this unit experiencing?
A) Autocratic.
B) Bureaucratic.
C) Laissez-faire.
D) Authoritarian.

 

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Free NMC CBT Study Materials for UK Nurses and Midwives Aspirants – MIHIRAA