DHA NURSING MOCK TEST (2025 Syllabus)

Question 1: A 65-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of crushing chest pain radiating to his left arm. He is diaphoretic and dyspneic. Which of the following is the nurse’s priority action?
A) Administer prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin.
B) Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG).
C) Initiate intravenous access.
D) Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.

Question 2: A patient with chronic kidney disease is prescribed a low-sodium, low-potassium, low-phosphate diet. Which food choice would the nurse advise the patient to avoid?
A) Apples
B) White bread
C) Bananas
D) Chicken breast

Question 3: A nurse is caring for a patient receiving continuous enteral tube feeding. The nurse notes the patient is experiencing diarrhea. Which intervention should the nurse consider first?
A) Administer an anti-diarrheal medication.
B) Decrease the rate of feeding.
C) Change the formula to a higher fiber option.
D) Check for impaction.

Question 4: A 4-year-old child is admitted with a diagnosis of croup. The nurse observes the child has a barking cough and inspiratory stridor. Which intervention is most appropriate?
A) Administer an antibiotic.
B) Provide humidified oxygen.
C) Prepare for endotracheal intubation.
D) Administer a bronchodilator.

Question 5: A nurse is educating a patient newly diagnosed with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus about insulin administration. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) “I will rotate my injection sites to prevent lipohypertrophy.”
B) “I should inject insulin into cold skin to minimize pain.”
C) “I need to check my blood sugar before each meal and at bedtime.”
D) “I will store my extra insulin pens in the refrigerator.”

Question 6: A patient is receiving a blood transfusion. Five minutes into the transfusion, the patient develops chills, fever, and lower back pain. What is the nurse’s immediate action?
A) Slow down the transfusion rate.
B) Administer an antipyretic.
C) Stop the transfusion immediately.
D) Reassure the patient and monitor vitals closely.

Question 7: The nurse is assessing a patient with a suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which assessment finding is most indicative of a DVT?
A) Bilateral ankle edema.
B) Warmth, redness, and tenderness in one calf.
C) Pallor and coolness of the affected extremity.
D) Diminished pedal pulses.

Question 8: A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a patient with newly diagnosed hypertension. Which lifestyle modification should the nurse emphasize?
A) Increased intake of processed foods.
B) Regular brisk walking for 30 minutes most days of the week.
C) Limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
D) Consuming a diet high in saturated fats.

Question 9: A patient is experiencing severe anxiety and hyperventilation. The nurse instructs the patient to breathe into a paper bag. What is the primary purpose of this intervention?
A) To increase oxygen intake.
B) To decrease carbon dioxide excretion.
C) To stimulate the vagus nerve.
D) To reduce respiratory rate.

Question 10: A nurse is preparing to administer medication via a nasogastric (NG) tube. What is the priority action before administering the medication?
A) Mix all medications together to administer at once.
B) Crush all tablets finely and dissolve them in a minimal amount of water.
C) Flush the NG tube with 30 mL of water.
D) Verify placement of the NG tube.

Question 11: A patient post-thyroidectomy complains of tingling and numbness around the mouth and fingertips. The nurse recognizes these symptoms as indicative of which complication?
A) Hemorrhage
B) Hypocalcemia
C) Hyperthyroidism
D) Infection

Question 12: Which of the following is a primary goal of palliative care?
A) To aggressively cure the patient’s underlying disease.
B) To extend the patient’s life at all costs.
C) To improve the quality of life for patients and their families facing life-limiting illness.
D) To prepare the patient for immediate end-of-life care.

Question 13: A nurse is assessing a patient with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 7. This score indicates which level of consciousness?
A) Mild neurological impairment.
B) Moderate neurological impairment.
C) Severe neurological impairment.
D) Fully alert and oriented.

Question 14: The nurse is caring for a patient with a new colostomy. Which stoma characteristic indicates a healthy stoma?
A) Pale, dusky, and dry.
B) Bluish-purple with slight retraction.
C) Red, moist, and slightly protruding.
D) Black and shriveled.

Question 15: A patient is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory test is essential for monitoring the therapeutic effect of this medication?
A) Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT).
B) Prothrombin Time (PT) / International Normalized Ratio (INR).
C) Complete Blood Count (CBC).
D) D-dimer.

Question 16: A nurse is educating a pregnant woman about signs of true labor. Which statement indicates the woman understands the teaching?
A) “My contractions will become irregular and spaced further apart.”
B) “I will feel sharp pains in my upper abdomen.”
C) “My contractions will increase in intensity and frequency, even with activity.”
D) “A warm bath will stop my contractions.”

Question 17: The nurse is administering an intramuscular (IM) injection. Which site is considered safe for administering large volumes of medication to an adult patient?
A) Deltoid
B) Vastus Lateralis
C) Ventrogluteal
D) Dorsogluteal

Question 18: A patient with a history of heart failure reports sudden weight gain of 2 kg in 24 hours, increased shortness of breath, and bilateral ankle swelling. The nurse suspects fluid overload. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate?
A) Administer IV fluids rapidly.
B) Restrict fluid intake.
C) Administer a laxative.
D) Encourage increased sodium intake.

Question 19: Which isolation precaution is appropriate for a patient diagnosed with active pulmonary tuberculosis?
A) Contact precautions.
B) Droplet precautions.
C) Airborne precautions.
D) Standard precautions only.

Question 20: A nurse is assessing a child for signs of dehydration. Which finding is most indicative of severe dehydration?
A) Moist mucous membranes and good skin turgor.
B) Decreased urine output and restlessness.
C) Sunken fontanelle and absence of tears.
D) Increased appetite and normal activity level.

Question 21: The nurse is preparing to administer digoxin. The apical pulse rate is 56 beats per minute. What is the nurse’s next action?
A) Administer the digoxin as prescribed.
B) Hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider.
C) Administer the digoxin and recheck the pulse in 30 minutes.
D) Administer a bolus of IV fluids.

Question 22: A patient is scheduled for a barium swallow test. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the patient post-procedure?
A) Restrict fluid intake for 24 hours.
B) Expect bright red stools for several days.
C) Increase fluid intake to prevent constipation.
D) Remain NPO for 6 hours after the test.

Question 23: A nurse is caring for a patient with a chest tube inserted for a pneumothorax. The nurse observes continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. What does this finding indicate?
A) The lung has fully re-expanded.
B) There is a persistent air leak.
C) The chest tube is clamped.
D) The drainage system is functioning normally.

Question 24: Which ethical principle is demonstrated when a nurse respects a patient’s decision to refuse a life-saving treatment, even if the nurse disagrees with the decision?
A) Beneficence
B) Non-maleficence
C) Autonomy
D) Justice

Question 25: A patient is experiencing an acute asthma exacerbation. Which medication is the nurse most likely to administer first?
A) Inhaled corticosteroids.
B) Long-acting beta-agonists.
C) Short-acting beta-agonists.
D) Leukotriene modifiers.

Question 26: The nurse is teaching a group of community members about stroke prevention. Which risk factor is modifiable?
A) Age
B) Family history
C) Uncontrolled hypertension
D) Gender

Question 27: A patient is admitted with symptoms of urinary tract infection (UTI). Which diagnostic test is definitive for confirming a UTI?
A) Urinalysis
B) Urine culture and sensitivity
C) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
D) Creatinine level

Question 28: A nurse is providing care for a patient with a stage 3 pressure injury. Which intervention is most appropriate for wound care?
A) Covering the wound with a dry gauze dressing.
B) Debriding necrotic tissue with a sharp scalpel.
C) Applying a moist dressing to promote healing.
D) Massaging the area around the wound to improve circulation.

Question 29: A patient is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction. After ensuring airway patency, which medication is the nurse’s priority to administer?
A) Diphenhydramine
B) Ranitidine
C) Epinephrine
D) Dexamethasone

Question 30: A nurse is teaching a patient about proper body mechanics to prevent back injury. Which instruction is correct?
A) Bend at the waist to lift objects.
B) Keep the object away from the body when lifting.
C) Use leg muscles, not back muscles, to lift.
D) Twist the trunk while lifting heavy objects.

Question 31: Which of the following is an expected finding in a patient with left-sided heart failure?
A) Peripheral edema and jugular venous distention.
B) Hepatomegaly and ascites.
C) Pulmonary congestion and dyspnea.
D) Weight loss and dry cough.

Question 32: A nurse is assessing a patient’s pain using a pain scale. Which principle of pain assessment is the nurse applying?
A) Pain is objective and measurable by vital signs.
B) The patient’s self-report is the most reliable indicator of pain.
C) Pain is always accompanied by visible signs of discomfort.
D) Pain should be assessed only when the patient complains about it.

Question 33: The nurse is preparing a patient for discharge after a myocardial infarction. Which topic is most crucial to include in the discharge teaching plan?
A) Importance of daily vigorous exercise.
B) Signs and symptoms of infection.
C) Medication adherence and recognition of warning signs of recurrent cardiac events.
D) Resumption of all pre-illness activities immediately.

Question 34: A patient is receiving continuous bladder irrigation after a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). The nurse observes bright red clots in the drainage bag. What is the nurse’s initial action?
A) Increase the rate of irrigation.
B) Clamp the irrigation tubing.
C) Document the finding and continue to monitor.
D) Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Question 35: A nurse is caring for a patient with a new tracheostomy. Which nursing intervention is most important to maintain airway patency?
A) Administering humidified oxygen.
B) Frequent suctioning.
C) Changing the tracheostomy ties daily.
D) Deflating the cuff frequently.

Question 36: Which of the following vaccinations is recommended for all healthcare workers to prevent the transmission of a highly contagious disease?
A) Human Papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine.
B) Tetanus, Diphtheria, Pertussis (Tdap) vaccine.
C) Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR) vaccine.
D) Influenza vaccine annually.

Question 37: A nurse is educating a patient about healthy coping mechanisms for stress. Which activity would the nurse recommend?
A) Consuming excessive amounts of caffeine.
B) Engaging in regular physical activity.
C) Isolating oneself from social interactions.
D) Suppressing emotions and feelings.

Question 38: A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed oxygen therapy. The nurse understands that for COPD patients, high flow oxygen can lead to which complication?
A) Increased respiratory drive.
B) Respiratory acidosis.
C) Improved oxygen saturation.
D) Increased appetite.

Question 39: The nurse is performing a focused assessment on a patient suspected of having appendicitis. Which symptom is most commonly associated with appendicitis?
A) Right upper quadrant pain radiating to the shoulder.
B) Left lower quadrant pain with rebound tenderness.
C) Periumbilical pain migrating to the right lower quadrant.
D) Generalized abdominal pain with constipation.

Question 40: A patient is experiencing a grand mal seizure. What is the nurse’s priority action during the seizure?
A) Restrain the patient’s limbs to prevent injury.
B) Insert an oral airway to prevent aspiration.
C) Protect the patient from injury and maintain a patent airway.
D) Administer anticonvulsant medication intravenously.

Question 41: The nurse is educating a patient with type 2 diabetes about foot care. Which instruction is most important to prevent complications?
A) Soak feet daily in hot water.
B) Walk barefoot around the house.
C) Inspect feet daily for cuts, blisters, or redness.
D) Cut toenails in a rounded fashion.

Question 42: Which of the following is a common early sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in an adult?
A) Bradycardia and hypertension.
B) Projectile vomiting.
C) Change in level of consciousness.
D) Fixed and dilated pupils.

Question 43: A nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous (IV) push medication. After checking the five rights of medication administration, what is the next crucial step?
A) Administer the medication rapidly.
B) Assess for patency of the IV site.
C) Document the administration immediately.
D) Flush the IV line with saline after administration.

Question 44: A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of gastroenteritis. The nurse anticipates the healthcare provider will order which type of fluid replacement?
A) 0.9% Sodium Chloride (Normal Saline).
B) Dextrose 5% in water (D5W).
C) Lactated Ringer’s.
D) Hypertonic saline.

Question 45: A nurse is providing education to a patient newly prescribed a diuretic. The nurse should advise the patient to monitor for which common side effect?
A) Constipation.
B) Headache.
C) Hypokalemia.
D) Hypernatremia.

Question 46: Which of the following is a key component of effective hand hygiene in a healthcare setting?
A) Using alcohol-based hand rub for visibly soiled hands.
B) Washing hands with soap and water for at least 20 seconds.
C) Wearing gloves instead of handwashing.
D) Using hot water to kill all microorganisms.

Question 47: A nurse is assessing a patient experiencing an acute episode of vertigo. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate to ensure patient safety?
A) Encourage rapid head movements.
B) Keep the room brightly lit.
C) Assist the patient with ambulation and ensure clear pathways.
D) Advise the patient to lie flat in bed.

Question 48: A patient with newly diagnosed celiac disease is receiving dietary teaching. Which food should the nurse instruct the patient to avoid?
A) Rice
B) Corn
C) Wheat bread
D) Potatoes

Question 49: The nurse is caring for a patient experiencing a severe allergic reaction after administering a new medication. The nurse should document this event as what?
A) A near miss.
B) An adverse drug reaction.
C) A medication error.
D) A sentinel event.

Question 50: A nurse is performing a rapid assessment on a patient presenting with an altered mental status. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
A) Blood pressure 130/80 mmHg.
B) Respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min.
C) Temperature of 37.2°C.
D) Capillary refill of 2 seconds.