DHA NURSING MOCK TEST (2025 Syllabus) – Set 2

Question 1: A nurse is caring for a patient admitted with an exacerbation of ulcerative colitis. Which assessment finding requires immediate attention?
A) Abdominal cramping and tenesmus.
B) Frequent bloody diarrhea.
C) Rebound tenderness and fever.
D) Weight loss and fatigue.

Question 2: A patient is prescribed a low-residue diet. Which food item should the nurse advise the patient to include?
A) Whole-grain bread.
B) Fresh fruits with skin.
C) Cooked white rice.
D) Raw vegetables.

Question 3: A nurse is providing education to a group of elderly residents about fall prevention. Which intervention is most effective in reducing fall risk?
A) Encouraging walking barefoot indoors.
B) Removing throw rugs and ensuring adequate lighting.
C) Limiting fluid intake to reduce bathroom trips.
D) Avoiding exercise to prevent fatigue.

Question 4: A patient with a new prescription for metformin is being discharged. Which instruction should the nurse emphasize regarding this medication?
A) “Take this medication on an empty stomach.”
B) “Stop taking this medication if you experience diarrhea.”
C) “You will need to monitor your blood sugar only once a week.”
D) “Report any muscle pain or unusual tiredness to your doctor.”

Question 5: The nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous potassium chloride infusion. Which action is essential prior to administration?
A) Administering it as an IV push for faster effect.
B) Ensuring it is diluted and administered via infusion pump.
C) Mixing it with dextrose 5% in water only.
D) Administering it to a patient with oliguria.

Question 6: A patient reports severe pain after abdominal surgery. The nurse administers an opioid analgesic. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for most closely?
A) Diarrhea.
B) Hypertension.
C) Respiratory depression.
D) Tachycardia.

Question 7: A nurse is conducting a health screening fair. Which finding in a female client would warrant immediate referral for further evaluation?
A) Blood pressure of 128/84 mmHg.
B) BMI of 27 kg/m².
C) A new, painless lump in her breast.
D) Fasting blood glucose of 105 mg/dL.

Question 8: The nurse is assessing a patient with a suspected urinary tract infection. Which symptom is a classic indicator in older adults?
A) High fever and chills.
B) Dysuria and frequency.
C) Acute confusion and agitation.
D) Flank pain and nausea.

Question 9: A nurse is teaching a patient with heart failure about fluid restrictions. Which strategy would be most helpful for the patient to adhere to the restriction?
A) Drinking all fluids at once in the morning.
B) Using smaller cups and ice chips.
C) Avoiding all salty foods.
D) Drinking only when feeling extremely thirsty.

Question 10: A child is admitted with Kawasaki disease. The nurse understands that a priority in the treatment plan for this condition involves administering which medication?
A) Antibiotics.
B) High-dose aspirin.
C) Bronchodilators.
D) Antihistamines.

Question 11: The nurse is caring for a patient in skeletal traction. Which action is a priority to prevent complications?
A) Releasing weights periodically to allow muscle relaxation.
B) Performing neurovascular checks every 8 hours.
C) Ensuring weights hang freely and are not resting on the floor.
D) Applying topical antibiotics around pin sites daily.

Question 12: A patient with a history of alcohol use disorder is admitted with suspected Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. The nurse anticipates administering which vitamin supplement?
A) Vitamin C.
B) Folic Acid.
C) Thiamine (Vitamin B1).
D) Vitamin D.

Question 13: A nurse is educating a patient about preventing sexually transmitted infections (STIs). Which statement indicates the need for further teaching?
A) “Using condoms consistently will fully protect me from all STIs.”
B) “I should get tested regularly if I am sexually active.”
C) “Abstinence is the only sure way to prevent STIs.”
D) “I should discuss STI history with new partners.”

Question 14: The nurse is assisting a patient with ambulation who has right-sided weakness. Where should the nurse stand?
A) On the patient’s left side, slightly behind.
B) On the patient’s right side, slightly behind.
C) Directly in front of the patient.
D) On the patient’s left side, slightly in front.

Question 15: A patient is exhibiting signs of hypoglycemia. What is the nurse’s immediate priority intervention if the patient is conscious and able to swallow?
A) Administer IV dextrose.
B) Offer 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate.
C) Administer glucagon intramuscularly.
D) Provide a complex carbohydrate meal.

Question 16: The nurse is caring for a patient with a new ostomy. The patient expresses concern about body image. What is the most appropriate nursing response?
A) “Don’t worry, it’s just a temporary thing.”
B) “Many people live normal lives with an ostomy.”
C) “It sounds like you’re feeling worried about how this changes things for you.”
D) “You’ll get used to it over time.”

Question 17: A nurse is reviewing medication orders. Which order requires clarification from the healthcare provider?
A) Furosemide 20 mg PO daily.
B) Morphine 2-4 mg IV PRN pain.
C) Insulin Lispro 10 units subcutaneously AC.
D) Amoxicillin 250 mg TID.

Question 18: A patient has been prescribed a new medication that is highly nephrotoxic. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
A) Hemoglobin A1c.
B) Serum creatinine.
C) Liver enzymes (ALT, AST).
D) White blood cell count.

Question 19: Which type of personal protective equipment (PPE) is essential when performing a sterile dressing change?
A) Gown and gloves.
B) Mask and eye protection.
C) Sterile gloves.
D) Non-sterile gloves and mask.

Question 20: A nurse is educating a postpartum client about preventing mastitis. Which instruction is most important?
A) “Wear a tight bra to support your breasts.”
B) “Limit breastfeeding sessions to prevent engorgement.”
C) “Ensure complete emptying of breasts with each feeding.”
D) “Apply cold compresses routinely after feeding.”

Question 21: The nurse is assessing a patient admitted with a suspected CVA (stroke). Which assessment tool is commonly used to rapidly assess neurological deficits?
A) Braden Scale.
B) Morse Fall Scale.
C) NIH Stroke Scale (NIHSS).
D) Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS).

Question 22: A patient is scheduled for a lumbar puncture. Which position should the nurse assist the patient into for the procedure?
A) Supine with legs extended.
B) Prone with head turned to the side.
C) Side-lying with knees drawn up to the chest.
D) Sitting upright with head hyperextended.

Question 23: A nurse is preparing to administer total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which action is a priority to prevent complications?
A) Administering through a peripheral IV line.
B) Rapidly infusing the first bag to ensure nutrient delivery.
C) Using an infusion pump and a dedicated central line.
D) Discontinuing the infusion if the patient experiences diarrhea.

Question 24: Which ethical principle refers to the obligation to do good and maximize benefits for the patient?
A) Autonomy.
B) Veracity.
C) Beneficence.
D) Fidelity.

Question 25: A patient with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which patient teaching is essential to prevent complications?
A) “You can stop taking the medication once seizures are controlled.”
B) “Report any gum swelling or tenderness to your healthcare provider.”
C) “Take this medication with antacids to prevent stomach upset.”
D) “This medication will make you gain weight rapidly.”

Question 26: The nurse is managing care for a patient with a pressure injury. Which nutritional intervention is most important for wound healing?
A) Fluid restriction.
B) High-carbohydrate diet.
C) Increased protein intake.
D) Low-fat diet.

Question 27: A nurse is assessing a client with a new cast on their left arm. Which assessment finding indicates a potential complication?
A) Mild swelling of the fingers.
B) Ability to wiggle fingers.
C) Pallor and coolness of the fingers.
D) Complaints of itching under the cast.

Question 28: A nurse is preparing a sterile field. Which action would contaminate the sterile field?
A) Touching the outer 1-inch border of the sterile field.
B) Keeping sterile objects above waist level.
C) Placing sterile items within the sterile field.
D) Reaching over the sterile field to retrieve an item.

Question 29: A patient is diagnosed with diverticulitis. During an acute flare-up, which diet modification should the nurse recommend?
A) High-fiber diet.
B) Low-fiber or clear liquid diet.
C) Regular diet with increased fluids.
D) Diet rich in nuts and seeds.

Question 30: A nurse is performing wound irrigation. What is the primary purpose of irrigating a wound?
A) To dry out the wound bed.
B) To promote bacterial growth.
C) To remove debris and exudate.
D) To seal the wound from air exposure.

Question 31: Which of the following is a common symptom of digoxin toxicity?
A) Tachycardia and increased appetite.
B) Visual disturbances (yellow-green halos) and nausea.
C) Hypertension and constipation.
D) Tremors and insomnia.

Question 32: A nurse is providing care to a patient who just had a percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) with stent placement. The nurse should prioritize monitoring for which complication?
A) Hypoglycemia.
B) Bleeding at the access site.
C) Hypernatremia.
D) Elevated white blood cell count.

Question 33: The nurse is teaching a patient about self-management of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which dietary recommendation is appropriate?
A) Avoid all dairy products.
B) Identify and avoid trigger foods.
C) Eat large meals three times a day.
D) Consume a high-fat diet.

Question 34: A nurse is caring for a patient with a severe burn injury. Which assessment finding is the most reliable indicator of effective fluid resuscitation?
A) Decreased pain level.
B) Absence of edema.
C) Urine output of 0.5 mL/kg/hr.
D) Stabilized blood pressure.

Question 35: A nurse is educating a patient about home oxygen therapy. Which safety precaution is essential?
A) Store oxygen tanks horizontally.
B) Place “No Smoking” signs in prominent areas.
C) Adjust oxygen flow rate as needed to relieve shortness of breath.
D) Use petroleum jelly for dry nasal passages.

Question 37: A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Which dietary modification should the nurse anticipate?
A) High-fat, high-protein diet.
B) NPO (nothing by mouth) with IV fluids.
C) Regular diet with small, frequent meals.
D) Diet rich in spicy foods.

Question 39: A nurse is providing education on newborn care to new parents. Which statement indicates proper understanding of umbilical cord care?
A) “I should apply alcohol to the cord stump daily.”
B) “I will cover the cord stump with a sterile dressing.”
C) “I will keep the cord stump clean and dry until it falls off.”
D) “I need to give my baby a full tub bath daily.”

Question 40: A patient with a new diagnosis of glaucoma is receiving education. Which statement indicates the patient understands the importance of treatment?
A) “My vision will fully recover once I start the eye drops.”
B) “The eye drops will prevent further vision loss.”
C) “Glaucoma is contagious and requires isolation.”
D) “I only need to use the eye drops when my eyes hurt.”

Question 42: A nurse is providing care for a patient with a newly inserted indwelling urinary catheter. Which intervention is essential to prevent a urinary tract infection?
A) Emptying the drainage bag only once a day.
B) Keeping the drainage bag above the level of the bladder.
C) Performing perineal care daily and after bowel movements.
D) Irrigating the catheter with antibiotics daily.

Question 43: A patient is exhibiting signs of delirium. Which intervention is most appropriate for managing acute delirium?
A) Administering sedatives regularly to keep the patient calm.
B) Restraining the patient to prevent self-harm.
C) Providing a calm, consistent environment with reorientation.
D) Engaging the patient in complex cognitive tasks.

Question 44: The nurse is administering a subcutaneous injection. Which angle of injection is most appropriate for an average-sized adult?
A) 15-degree angle.
B) 45-degree angle.
C) 90-degree angle.
D) 30-degree angle.

Question 45: A nurse is teaching a patient about managing gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which food should the nurse advise the patient to limit?
A) Lean meats.
B) Carbonated beverages.
C) Steamed vegetables.
D) Whole-grain pasta.

Question 46: A patient reports severe headache, stiff neck, and photophobia. The nurse suspects meningitis. Which isolation precaution should the nurse initiate?
A) Contact precautions.
B) Droplet precautions.
C) Airborne precautions.
D) Standard precautions only.

Question 47: The nurse is caring for a patient experiencing a severe nosebleed (epistaxis). What is the nurse’s initial intervention?
A) Have the patient lie flat with head tilted back.
B) Apply ice to the bridge of the nose.
C) Have the patient lean forward and pinch the soft part of the nose.
D) Insert nasal packing immediately.

Question 48: A nurse is assessing a patient with deep partial-thickness burns. Which characteristic describes this type of burn?
A) Dry, leathery, and insensate.
B) Red, painful, with blisters.
C) Blanched, waxy, and painless.
D) Minimal pain with only epidermal damage.

Question 49: The nurse is educating a patient about the importance of regular exercise for cardiovascular health. Which type of exercise is most beneficial?
A) Strength training only.
B) High-intensity interval training (HIIT) only.
C) Aerobic exercises like brisk walking or swimming.
D) Stretching and flexibility exercises.

Question 50: A nurse is performing a rapid response assessment. Which of the following is a key component of the SBAR communication tool?
A) Symptom, Body System, Assessment, Response.
B) Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation.
C) Severity, Baseline, Action, Result.
D) Subjective, Objective, Analysis, Plan.