DHA NURSING MOCK TEST (2025 Syllabus) – Set 3

Question 1: A nurse is admitting a patient with suspected bacterial meningitis. Which action is the highest priority for the nurse?
A) Administering antipyretics for fever.
B) Initiating intravenous antibiotics as prescribed.
C) Placing the patient on droplet precautions.
D) Obtaining a detailed neurological history.

Question 2: A patient is receiving continuous bladder irrigation after prostate surgery. The nurse observes that the urinary drainage is clear with a light pink tinge. What is the appropriate nursing action?
A) Increase the irrigation rate.
B) Decrease the irrigation rate.
C) Clamp the urinary catheter.
D) Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Question 3: A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a patient with newly diagnosed peripheral artery disease (PAD). Which instruction is most important?
A) Elevate legs above heart level when resting.
B) Apply heating pads to affected limbs to improve circulation.
C) Practice regular, progressive exercise to the point of claudication.
D) Wear tight-fitting socks to reduce edema.

Question 4: The nurse is assessing a patient experiencing acute respiratory distress. Which finding is the most reliable indicator of worsening respiratory status?
A) Increased use of accessory muscles.
B) Reports of dyspnea.
C) Oxygen saturation of 92%.
D) Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min.

Question 5: A patient with chronic kidney disease is scheduled for hemodialysis. The nurse notes that the patient’s arteriovenous (AV) fistula has no palpable thrill or audible bruit. What is the nurse’s immediate action?
A) Document the finding and proceed with dialysis.
B) Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
C) Attempt to flush the fistula with saline.
D) Apply a warm compress to the fistula.

Question 6: A nurse is preparing to administer an opioid analgesic to an adult patient. The nurse calculates the dose correctly. What is the next essential nursing action before administration?
A) Verify the patient’s identity using two identifiers.
B) Check the patient’s pain level on a scale of 0-10.
C) Assess the patient’s respiratory rate.
D) Educate the patient on potential side effects.

Question 7: A nurse is teaching a community group about primary prevention strategies for cardiovascular disease. Which topic should be included?
A) Early detection of hypertension through screening.
B) Management of existing heart failure.
C) Regular physical activity and healthy eating habits.
D) Rehabilitation programs after a myocardial infarction.

Question 8: The nurse is caring for a patient post-stroke who has dysphagia. Which intervention is most appropriate to prevent aspiration?
A) Offer thin liquids to encourage hydration.
B) Encourage talking during meals to stimulate swallowing.
C) Position the patient upright at 90 degrees during meals.
D) Provide small, frequent meals of pureed consistency.

Question 9: A patient is admitted with symptoms of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory finding would the nurse expect?
A) Blood glucose 80 mg/dL.
B) pH 7.45.
C) Bicarbonate 10 mEq/L.
D) Serum potassium 5.5 mEq/L.

Question 10: The nurse is preparing to insert a peripheral intravenous (IV) catheter. Which action is appropriate for vein selection?
A) Select a vein that is hard and cord-like.
B) Choose the most distal site first in the non-dominant arm.
C) Select a site directly over a joint.
D) Avoid using tourniquet to prevent bruising.

Question 11: A patient is experiencing severe anxiety. Which non-pharmacological intervention should the nurse implement first?
A) Administering a benzodiazepine.
B) Encouraging deep breathing exercises.
C) Providing a demanding cognitive task.
D) Leaving the patient alone in a quiet room.

Question 12: The nurse is teaching a client about managing osteoarthritis. Which intervention should the nurse recommend to reduce pain and improve mobility?
A) Strict bed rest to protect joints.
B) High-impact exercises like running.
C) Weight management and low-impact exercises.
D) Avoiding all joint movement to prevent wear and tear.

Question 13: A nurse is conducting a newborn assessment. Which finding is considered abnormal and requires further investigation?
A) Presence of Mongolian spots.
B) Acrocyanosis in the hands and feet.
C) Jaundice noted within the first 24 hours of birth.
D) Positive Babinski reflex.

Question 15: A nurse is caring for a patient with a traumatic brain injury who is exhibiting decerebrate posturing. This indicates damage to which area of the brain?
A) Cerebral cortex.
B) Midbrain or brainstem.
C) Cerebellum.
D) Basal ganglia.

Question 16: A patient with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections is receiving discharge teaching. Which dietary modification should the nurse recommend?
A) Increased intake of sugary drinks.
B) Consumption of cranberry juice regularly.
C) Limiting fluid intake to reduce frequency.
D) Avoiding all acidic fruits.

Question 17: The nurse is caring for a patient with an indwelling urinary catheter. What is the most important measure to prevent a catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI)?
A) Routine irrigation of the catheter with antiseptic solution.
B) Securing the catheter to the patient’s thigh.
C) Changing the drainage bag daily.
D) Administering prophylactic antibiotics.

Question 18: A nurse is performing a focused assessment on a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which finding is commonly associated with emphysema?
A) Productive cough with thick sputum.
B) Pursed-lip breathing and barrel chest.
C) Normal respiratory rate.
D) Crackles on auscultation.

Question 19: Which ethical principle applies when a nurse ensures fairness in the allocation of scarce resources among multiple patients?
A) Autonomy.
B) Non-maleficence.
C) Justice.
D) Beneficence.

Question 20: A nurse is preparing for the safe administration of blood products. What is the final verification step before initiating the transfusion?
A) Checking the patient’s temperature.
B) Confirming blood product type with the blood bank.
C) Verifying patient identity and blood product against order with another licensed professional.
D) Educating the patient about signs of a reaction.

Question 22: A nurse is assessing a patient who just underwent a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) with stent placement via the femoral approach. The nurse notes absent pedal pulses on the affected leg. What is the nurse’s immediate action?
A) Document the finding and continue to monitor.
B) Elevate the affected leg.
C) Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
D) Apply a warm compress to the leg.

Question 23: A nurse is providing education to a patient newly diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which statement indicates the need for further teaching?
A) “I need to take my antiretroviral medications exactly as prescribed.”
B) “I should avoid sharing needles or engaging in unprotected sex.”
C) “My infection means I will develop AIDS immediately.”
D) “Regular follow-up appointments are important.”

Question 24: The nurse is preparing to administer an injection into the deltoid muscle. Which gauge and length of needle are typically appropriate for an average adult?
A) 18 gauge, 1 inch.
B) 25 gauge, 5/8 inch.
C) 21 gauge, 1.5 inch.
D) 23 gauge, 1 inch.

Question 25: A patient is diagnosed with Clostridium difficile infection. Which hand hygiene practice is most effective for preventing its spread?
A) Using an alcohol-based hand sanitizer.
B) Washing hands thoroughly with soap and water.
C) Wearing gloves and gown when entering the room.
D) Performing hand hygiene only after leaving the room.

Question 26: The nurse is planning care for a patient with acute diverticulitis. Which intervention is a priority during the acute phase?
A) Administering laxatives to promote bowel regularity.
B) Providing a high-fiber, solid diet.
C) Maintaining NPO status with intravenous fluids.
D) Encouraging frequent ambulation.

Question 28: A nurse is educating a patient about measures to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) after surgery. Which instruction is correct?
A) “Keep your legs elevated on pillows at all times.”
B) “Perform leg exercises and ambulate early as tolerated.”
C) “Apply warm compresses to your calves daily.”
D) “Avoid wearing compression stockings.”

Question 29: A patient is experiencing an allergic reaction to a bee sting, manifesting as localized swelling and redness. What is the nurse’s initial intervention?
A) Administering intramuscular epinephrine.
B) Applying a cold compress to the site.
C) Preparing for intubation.
D) Initiating an IV fluid bolus.

Question 30: The nurse is assessing a patient with a new fractured hip. Which assessment finding is most characteristic of a hip fracture?
A) Shortening of the affected leg and internal rotation.
B) Lengthening of the affected leg and external rotation.
C) Shortening of the affected leg and external rotation.
D) Absence of pain with movement.

Question 31: A nurse is caring for a patient with pneumonia. Which nursing intervention is most effective in promoting airway clearance?
A) Administering cough suppressants.
B) Encouraging shallow breathing.
C) Positioning the patient supine.
D) Encouraging deep breathing, coughing, and frequent repositioning.

Question 32: The nurse is preparing to administer insulin using a pen device. What is the crucial step before injecting the insulin?
A) Shaking the pen vigorously to mix the insulin.
B) Priming the needle with 2 units of insulin.
C) Recapping the needle after use.
D) Injecting into an area of lipohypertrophy.

Question 33: A patient is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Which instruction is critical for the nurse to provide regarding bowel preparation?
A) “You can eat a light breakfast on the day of the procedure.”
B) “You will need to drink a clear liquid diet for 24-48 hours before the procedure.”
C) “Take your regular medications as usual, including blood thinners.”
D) “Expect dark, solid stools after completing the bowel prep.”

Question 34: The nurse is caring for a patient receiving continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) therapy for sleep apnea. Which assessment finding indicates the CPAP therapy is effective?
A) Increased daytime sleepiness.
B) Absence of snoring and apneic episodes.
C) Frequent awakenings during the night.
D) Reports of dry mouth and nasal congestion.

Question 35: A nurse is performing a medication reconciliation for a newly admitted patient. What is the primary purpose of this process?
A) To update the patient’s allergy list.
B) To ensure accurate medication orders upon admission and discharge.
C) To identify all over-the-counter medications the patient is taking.
D) To reduce the cost of patient medications.

Question 36: The nurse is providing care for a patient with a cast on the lower leg. Which sign indicates potential compartment syndrome?
A) Mild swelling of the toes.
B) Pain that is disproportionate to the injury and unrelieved by analgesia.
C) Positive Homan’s sign.
D) Warmth and redness of the casted extremity.

Question 37: A nurse is assessing a child with a suspected fracture. Which assessment finding is the most reliable indicator of pain in a non-verbal child?
A) Increased heart rate and blood pressure.
B) Crying and grimacing.
C) Withdrawal from activity.
D) Restlessness and irritability.

Question 38: A patient with a history of recurrent falls is being discharged. Which referral is most appropriate for ongoing fall prevention?
A) Nutritional counseling.
B) Physical therapy.
C) Speech therapy.
D) Occupational therapy.

Question 39: The nurse is educating a patient about managing chronic pain using non-pharmacological methods. Which strategy is appropriate?
A) Relying solely on opioid medications for pain relief.
B) Ignoring pain until it becomes severe.
C) Engaging in mindfulness meditation and relaxation techniques.
D) Limiting social interaction to avoid stress.

Question 40: A patient is in cardiac arrest. The nurse is participating in cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). What is the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio for a single rescuer on an adult?
A) 15:2.
B) 30:2.
C) 5:1.
D) Continuous compressions without pauses.

Question 41: The nurse is assessing a patient with suspected dehydration. Which laboratory finding would support this diagnosis?
A) Decreased urine specific gravity.
B) Increased hematocrit.
C) Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN).
D) Normal serum sodium level.

Question 42: A nurse is preparing a sterile field for a surgical procedure. Which action demonstrates correct sterile technique?
A) Placing sterile items within the 1-inch border.
B) Opening the sterile package away from the body first.
C) Allowing drapes to touch the floor before placing them.
D) Setting up the sterile field an hour before the procedure.

Question 43: A patient is experiencing sudden onset of shortness of breath, chest pain, and anxiety. The nurse notes rapid, shallow respirations and unilateral diminished breath sounds. Which condition does the nurse suspect?
A) Asthma exacerbation.
B) Pneumonia.
C) Pulmonary embolism.
D) Myocardial infarction.

Question 44: The nurse is administering medications. Which of the “seven rights” of medication administration is focused on ensuring the medication is appropriate for the patient’s condition?
A) Right patient.
B) Right drug.
C) Right indication.
D) Right dose.

Question 45: A nurse is providing pre-operative teaching for a patient scheduled for surgery. Which instruction is most important to prevent post-operative complications?
A) “You will need to be NPO for at least 4 hours before surgery.”
B) “You will be given a general anesthetic and won’t remember anything.”
C) “We will encourage you to deep breathe, cough, and ambulate early after surgery.”
D) “You will be able to eat a regular diet immediately after surgery.”

Question 46: A nurse is assessing a patient with a suspected fluid volume deficit. Which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect?
A) Bounding peripheral pulses.
B) Distended neck veins.
C) Dry mucous membranes and decreased skin turgor.
D) Crackles on lung auscultation.

Question 47: The nurse is teaching a patient with diabetes about proper insulin storage. Which instruction is correct?
A) “Store all insulin at room temperature after opening.”
B) “Unopened insulin vials can be kept in the refrigerator until expiration.”
C) “Keep insulin in direct sunlight to maintain potency.”
D) “Pre-filled syringes can be stored for up to 3 months.”

Question 48: A nurse is caring for a patient with an endotracheal tube. Which intervention is essential to prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)?
A) Routine mouth care with water only.
B) Elevating the head of the bed to 15 degrees.
C) Performing frequent oral hygiene with chlorhexidine solution.
D) Deflating the cuff every 4 hours.

Question 49: A patient expresses feelings of hopelessness and states, “I just want to end it all.” What is the nurse’s priority action?
A) Tell the patient that things will get better.
B) Assess for a specific suicide plan and means.
C) Encourage the patient to focus on positive thoughts.
D) Call the patient’s family for support.

Question 50: The nurse is performing discharge teaching for a patient prescribed warfarin. Which food should the nurse advise the patient to consume consistently rather than avoid entirely?
A) Spinach and kale.
B) Grapefruit.
C) Green tea.
D) Cranberry juice.