IQN Theoretical Examination for Nursing Council New Zealand – Mock Test 2
Question No 1: Mihiraa, a 23-year-old shearer, presents in ED acutely ill with peritonitis. He says that he has had abdominal pain over the last 2 weeks but has been reluctant to seek help as he needs to continue working to support his large extended whanau. In your assessment your best response would be one of the following:
A) Voice your disapproval of his non-compliance. Tell him the consequences of his actions
B) Explain to him that its responsibility to seek treatment early
C) Empathise with the many factors in his life that make it difficult to seek early treatment
D) Blame his acute condition on his reluctance to seek earlier treatment
Question No 2: Mihiraa, 68 year old is admitted with septicaemia following below knee amputation. She says to you that she has been treated by the maori healer and she wants them to keep treating her. Your reply would be:
A) To encourage her choice to have the maori healer participate in her care
B) To tell Mihiraa that you will pass her request on to medical staff
C) To tell Mihiraa that its not part of hospital policy but she could seek a maori healer on discharge
D) To tell Mihiraa that western medicine is more advanced and the maori healer hasn’t fixed her condition so far
Question No 3: Mihiraa a deeply religious 75 year old is about to have a blood sample taken when the maori minister appears to take prayers with him. The technician is in a hurry to do her rounds. You:
A) Tell the maori minister to wait until after the blood sample has been taken
B) Tell the technician to come back at a later time
C) Offer to take prayers with Mihiraa if he has the blood test first
D) Seek medical advice
Question No 4: Mihiraa, a closed brethren in B block is on a restricted diet. Her family and church members regularly bring in food for her. You:
A) Take the food and put it in the kitchen for the nurses supper
B) Tell the family and the church members sternly not to bring in any more food because she is on a restricted diet
C) Tells Mihiraa not to let the family and church members feed her any longer
D) Tell Mihiraa, her family and church members the consequences of her eating the wrong diet
Question No 5: Mihiraa is a 22 year old homosexual whose partner died last year from aids. He presents at your GP practice without an appointment. He is coughing uncontrollably and sweating profusely in the waiting room which is full. You:
A) Tell him to leave as he doesn’t have an appointment and hes upsetting the other patients
B) Take him to the treatment room and ask the GP to examine him when he has a chance
C) Quietly tell the receptionist that he probably has the aids virus and to be careful when she serves him
D) Take him to the treatment room so he doesn’t infect those in the waiting room
Question No 6: Mihiraa, a sixth is admitted to ICPU in an acute psychotic episode. You are told to remove his head dress so that he doesn’t hand himself. He begs you to leave it on. You:
A) Order sedation for him and remove the head dress when he has quietened down
B) Use ‘calming and restraint’ with two other nurses and remove his head dress
C) Empathise with his pleading and leave the head dress on
D) Ring the sikh translator on the hospital phone list and ask him to come and tell Mihiraa that its ok to have his head dress removed
Question No 7: Mihiraa is a primigravids, who has diabetes and required insulin for the last year. She has been told her insulin needs will increase during pregnancy. This statement is based on the fact that:
A) The placenta produces a hormone that decreases maternal glucose levels
B) The placenta produces a hormone that decreases the effectiveness of maternal insulin
C) Her diabetic condition is becoming more severe
D) None of the above
Question No 8: Mihiraa is scheduled to have an aminocentesis. She is concerned that the placenta will be punctured and her baby will lose its adequate source of oxygen. The nurse assures Mihiraa that it is unlikely the placenta will be punctured because:
A) The placenta is implanted in the fundus and insertion of the needs for aminocentesis is in the lower region of the uterus
B) The membrane covering the placenta is almost impossible to penetrate with a needle prior to term
C) Ultrasound is used just prior to amniocentesis to locate the placenta and prevent such a risk
D) Amioscopy is performed just prior to amniocentesis to locate the placenta and prevent such a risk
Question No 9: Following an amniocentesis, Mihiraa should be advised to:
A) Be on bedrest for at least the next 24-48 hours
B) Report any uterine contractions or abdominal pain
C) Record her temperature 4 hourly for the next 24 hours
D) Observe for blood in her urine
Question No 10: Mihiraa states at her next ante natal visit to her midwife that she has begun to feel foetal movement. Foetal movement is usually felt by the pregnant woman when the foetus is approximately:
A) 12 weeks gestation
B) 16-20 weeks gestation
C) 22-24 weeks gestation
D) 26-28 weeks gestation
Question No 11: Mihiraa can expect to experience all the following signs in the early stages of her pregnancy, except:
A) Chadwicks sign
B) Goodells sign
C) Humans sign
D) Frequency of micturition
Question No 12: Mihiraa’s pregnancy progresses well and she goes into spontaneous labour at 38 weeks gestation. Her diabetes has been well controlled by insulin. Mihiraa is now in active labour. On vaginal examination, her midwife finds that the foetal head is at -1 station. This means that the foetal head is:
A) 1cm below the ischial spines
B) 1cm above the ischial spines
C) 1cm below the iliac spines
D) 1cm above the iliac spines
Question No 13: You assisting the midwife who tells you Mihiraa is now in the transitional phase of the first stage of labour. In the transitional phase the cervix is:
A) 0-3cm dilated
B) 3-5cm dilated
C) 5-7cm dilated
D) 7-10cm dilated
Question No 14: Mihiraa’s husband Mihiraa is timing the frequency of her contractions. This means he is timing from the:
A) Beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next
B) End of one contraction to the beginning of the next
C) Beginning of one contraction until it begins to go away
D) Beginning of one contraction until it is completely over
Question No 15: The midwife takes Mihiraa’s blood pressure between contractions. The chief purpose underlying this action is because:
A) It is more comfortable for Mihiraa
B) Diastolic blood pressure lowers between contractions
C) Maternal blood pressure does not change with contractions
D) Systolic blood pressure increases during uterine contractions
Question No 16: When Mihiraa and Mihiraa’s baby girl Mihiraa is born ,she does not cry immediately, but at one minute she is crying lustily and her baby is pink with blueness of extremities. Her heart rate is 156. The baby has an apgar score of:
A) 7
B) 8
C) 9
D) 10
Question No 17: Mihiraa, 18 months old is admitted to the children ward with a diagnosis of bonchiolitis. Erikson has referred this age as a period of:
A) Industry
B) Self actualisation
C) Trust
D) Autonomy
Question No 18: On admission, Mihiraa is clinging to her mother and refuses to stay in the cot. Denise, Mihiraa’s mother is upset. You would state:
A) Put her in the cot and leave her for half and hour
B) It is normal for Mihiraa to want to stay with you
C) Give her some toys and she’ll be alright
D) She’ll soon get over it
Question No 19: Bronchiolitis is most commonly caused by which of the following microorganisms:
A) Respiratory syncytial virus
B) Chlamydia bacteria
C) Parainfluenza virus
D) Enterovirus
Question No 20: When doing Mihiraa’s physical assessment you notice her respiratory function is diminished. This is because Mihiraa’s:
A) Alveoli are destroyed
B) Temperature is elevated
C) Bronchioles are inflamed
D) Heart rate is increased
Question No 21: Mihiraa is scheduled for regular nebulizer treatment for the purpose of:
A) Administering bronchodilators
B) Providing a dry mist to ease breathing
C) Reversing respiratory acidosis
D) Administering oxygen
Question No 22: On taking Mihiraa’s vital signs, you notice her temperature is 39.5 degrees. You would:
A) Check her temperature again in half an hour
B) Give aspirin as prescribed and tepid sponge
C) Wrap her in a blanket to prevent chills, and administer paracetamol as prescribed
D) Tepid sponge her and administer paracetamol as prescribed
Question No 23: As well as ensuring Mihiraa’s respiratory status is stable, a further priority in your nursing intervention is:
A) Giving her toys to play with
B) Spending time with Mihiraa to establish a rapport
C) Encouraging fluids and observing hydration status
D) Continuing with normal activities to reduce separation anxiety
Question No 24: Mihiraa has recovered from the acute stage of her illness. In planning for her discharge, denise is encouraged to:
A) Allow Mihiraa to rest and play as she feels able
B) Keep Mihiraa in bed as much as possible
C) Offer her small toys to occupy her
D) Discourage interaction with other children
Question No 25: Mihiraa, six months old, is admitted to the childrens ward with severe dehydration due to vomiting and diarrhoea. Iv fluids are commenced, one of the dangers of IV therapy is overhydration. This could lead to:
A) Infiltration
B) Kidney failure
C) Rupture of the bladder
D) Pulmonary oedema
Question No 26: Mihiraa’s blood pressure is very low. You realize a low blood pressure is expected because:
A) Mihiraa has been vomiting
B) His circulation blood volume is low
C) He has been receiving iv therapy
D) He has an elevated temperature
Question No 27: Mihiraa is a third year comprehensive student nurse who has just completed her elective clinical experience. Whilst on clinical Mihiraa was able to observe the management role. Mihiraa noticed that the charge nurse managed to control all the activities in the ward really well. Controlling refers to actions taken to:
A) Increase job satisfaction and motivation among employees
B) Increase productivity, innovation and quality outcomes
C) Ensure that actual outcomes are consistent with those planned and anticipated
D) Determine success or failure with tasks
Question No 28: Quality control refers to activities which:
A) Set standards and determine criteria
B) Determine whether standards have been met
C) Educate staff about corrective actions required
D) Evaluate, monitor or regulate services rendered to customers
Question No 29: One of the reasons the charge nurse controls well is that she has set standards for performance. A standard is:
A) An agreed upon base line condition or level of excellence
B) An evaluation instrument tool used by all
C) A set of behaviours that are common and understood by all
D) A set of behaviours that are defined by others for a profession
Question No 30: While Mihiraa was on the ward a nursing audit was done. The nursing audit is a tool designed to evaluate:
A) The nurses clinical practice
B) The nursing care clients receive
C) The charge nurses managerial skill
D) The cost of nursing care of clients
Question No 31: Mihiraa is keen to develop her own leadership and management skills. She knows as a newly registered nurse she will need to:
A) Be able to organise herself well
B) Communicate with others effectively
C) Manage time effectively
D) All of the above
Question No 32: A conflict situation arose on the ward while Mihiraa was there. It is important in resolving conflict for a manager to:
A) Make sure the better side wins
B) Tell each side what they need to do
C) Leave each side with their self esteem intact
D) Make sure the conflict is resolved immediately
Question No 33: Constructive conflict can:
A) Keep everyone on their toes
B) Encourage growth
C) Improve relationships on the ward
D) All of the above
Question No 34: There was always plenty of equipment in Mihiraa’s ward and one of the staff told her that the charge nurse ‘has great budgeting skills’. She probably meant that:
A) The budget was used as a master plan for annual operation of the ward
B) The budget was used as a tool to evaluate the wards performance over the year
C) The budget allowed maxiumum utilization of resources to meet short and long term needs
D) All of the above would be correct about budgets
Question No 35: Mihiraa’s elective experience brought home to her the fact that nurse often have to make decisions of an ethical nature. An ethical dilemma exists for the nurse when:
A) Two nurses cannot agree on a course of action
B) The doctor and nurse are in conflict
C) A conflict exists between the nurses personal values and professional ethics
D) A conflict exists between the nurse and doctors personal values
Question No 36: Mihiraa has been admitted to the surgical ward with a provisional diagnosis of peritonitis. Mihiraa is examined by the surgeon who asks for him to be prepared for theatre. This preparation will probably include:
1. Commencing IV fluids
2. Gastric aspiration
3. A bowel washout
4. Gastric lavage
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 4
D) 3 and 4
Question No 37: Which of the following is not a usual cause of peritonitis:
A) Diverticulitis
B) Pancreatitis
C) Gastro enteritis
D) Perforated ulcer
Question No 38: It is possible that intraperitoneal inflammation can be localised. It is surrounded and sealed off by:
A) Mesentery
B) Omentum
C) Peritoneum
D) Granulation tissue
Question No 39: Post surgery Mihiraa has IV therapy – 1 litre of dextrose saline 8 hourly with potassium 30 mmols in each litre. It is necessary to augment IV therapy with potassium in this instance because:
A) It is routine following this type of surgery
B) Excessive sodium is retained when potassium is not given
C) Potassium loss is excessive following this type of surgery
D) Nil by mouth reduces potassium absorption
Question No 40: Mihiraa has a naso gastric tube in situ on free drainage. The function of the naso gastric tube in this instance is to:
A) Prevent gastric reflux
B) Allow the gut to rest and heal
C) Allow for return of peristalsis
D) Maintain long term nil by mouth
Question No 41: For pregnancy confirmation what instructions regarding a specimen urine would you give:
A) Give a voided specimen during her first visit
B) Instruct her on how to give a sterile specimen
C) Bring in the first voided specimen in the morning
D) A catheterised specimen will be required
Question No 42: Which of the following is a complication of gestational proteinuria hypertension (GPH/HOP) syndrome:
A) Hydrops fetalis
B) Placenta praevia
C) Ictirus neonatorum
D) Placental abruption
Question No 43: An acute communicable disease that can cause severe deformities in the fetus if contracted during pregnancy is:
A) Syphilis
B) Morbilli
C) Gonorrhoea
D) Tuberculosis
Question No 44: Pregnancy predisposes a woman to urinary tract infection because:
A) There is a decrease in leucocytes in pregnancy
B) Urinary stasis results from dilated ureters
C) Vaginal flora becomes easily infected
D) Of an altered pH (acidity) of urine
Question No 45: For an initial prenatal visit to the doctor, which of the following tests will be done:
A) Blood pressure, urinalysis, ultrasound, blood pressure
B) Weight, blood pressure, family history, blood group
C) Urinalysis, weight, blood pressure, blood group
D) Blood group, weight, blood pressure, oestriols
Question No 46: Dietary counselling for a pregnant client would include:
A) Referral to the dietician
B) Discussing the importance of limiting salt to prevent gestational proteinuria hypertension (GPH) syndrome
C) Asking her what she eats at each meal
D) Telling her that proteins are essential for fetal development
Question No 47: A 36 weeks primigravidia, complains that her fingers are swelling. The nurse should:
A) Tell her to take her rings off
B) Say that further bedrest will resolve this problem
C) Advise her to drink less fluid
D) Take her blood pressure
Question No 48: To prevent or ease varicose veins during pregnancy, women should be advised to:
A) Elevate the legs when sitting
B) Sit in an upright chair with feet flat on the floor
C) Avoid excessive walking
D) Put on firm stockings after getting up
Question No 49: Fetal distress during labour may be indicated by:
1. Marked change in fetal heart rate
2. Irregularity of fetal heart rate
3. Meconium stained liquor
4. Hyperactivity of the fetus
A) 1 and 2
B) 3 and 4
C) 2, 3 and 4
D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Question No 50: Which of the following can be described as a sign of true labour:
A) A show of blood and mucous
B) Contractions increasing in frequency
C) Progressive cervical dilation
D) Rupture of the membranes
Question No 51: In the mechanism of labour for a right occipito posterior (R.O.P) position, external rotation of the head follows:
A) Extension of the sinciput and face
B) Internal rotation of the shoulders
C) Crowning of the occiput
D) Restitution of the head
Question No 52: Which mechanism of labour is responsible for the delivery of the fetal head:
A) Extension
B) External rotation
C) Expulsion
D) Effacement
Question No 53: Crowning occurs when:
A) The largest diameters of the babys head have passed through the pelvic inlet
B) The largest diameters of the babys head have passed through the pelvic outlet
C) The largest diameters of the babys head are encircled by the vaginal opening
D) None of the above
Question No 54: Presentation of the fetus refers to the:
A) Level of fetal head in the pelvis
B) Part of the fetus lying in the lower pole of the uterus
C) Part of the fetus lying over the os during labour
D) Relationship of the denominator to the maternal pelvis
Question No 55: Position of the fetus refers to:
A) The relationship of the fetal parts to each other
B) That part of the fetus that engages in the maternal pelvis
C) The relationship of the long axis of the fetus to the long axis of the mother
D) The relationship of the denominator to the maternal pelvis
Question No 56: In caring for pre term infants, which of the following precautions should be taken against retrolental fibroplasias:
1. Oxygen administration should be discontinued as soon as feasible
2. Oxygen concentration should be monitored
3. Daily tests should assess serum bilirubin levels
4. Eye covering should be applied to infants during phototherapy
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 4
C) 3 and 4
D) 1, 3 and 4
Question No 57: Neonatal hypoxia may be due to:
A) Persistent effects of intra uterine hypoxia
B) Congenital abnormalities
C) Intracranial bleeding
D) All of these
Question No 58: The neonates body temperature during the first several days is:
1. Dependent upon the environment
2. Stable between 36.6 to 37.2 C
3. Dependent upon caloric intake
4. Immune to environmental changes
5. Dependent upon babys physiological state
A) 2, 4 and 5
B) 1, 2 and 5
C) 1, 3 and 5
D) All of these
Question No 59: The skin of a newborn infant may be covered with a yellowish cheese like substance called:
A) Lanugo
B) Milia
C) Mongolian spot
D) Vernex caseosa
Question No 60: A baby just born who has a spontaneous cry and breathing is established within 30 seconds. The apgar rating will probably be:
A) 10
B) 9
C) 8
D) 7
Question No 61: The fetal heart rate per minute is normally between:
A) 900-120
B) 100-150
C) 120-160
D) 130-170
Question No 62: The approximate daily fluid requirement for a 7 day old baby who is healthy and weighs 3.5 kilograms, will be:
A) 110ml
B) 210ml
C) 330ml
D) 525ml
Question No 63: You are working in an obstetric hospital and a mother asks you about blood being taken from her babys heel. You tell her this is routinely done on neonates for a series of tests including the:
A) Rhesus test
B) Phenylalanine test
C) Guthrie test
D) Bilirubin test
Question No 64: For a healthy full term baby, the earliest the Guthrie test is reliable is:
A) Immediately following birth
B) 24 hours following birth
C) 48 hours following birth
D) 5 days following birth
Question No 65: You are asked about the likely outcome of treatment of (P>K>U>) phenylketonuria. Your answer should include:
A) Normal development is assured if treatment is adhered to
B) Treatment by diet is necessary until adulthood.
C) Treatment by diet is designed to reverse the process of brain damage
D) Treatment by diet is essential for the prevention of mental deficiency
Question No 66: After birth the closure of the foramen ovale occurs because:
A) Clamping of the umbilical vein reduces pressure in the right atrium
B) Expansion of the lungs and increased pulmonary circulation increases pressure in the left atrium
C) With its first cry the infant increases blood flow to the right side of its heart
D) A and b
Question No 67: Fetal blood bypasses the lung by means of the:
A) Formen ovale
B) Ductus venosis
C) Ductus arteriosis
D) Both a and c
Question No 68: Retraction of uterine muscles during the first stage of labour causes:
A) Reduction of the uterine capacity
B) Thinning of the uterine wall
C) Lengthening of teh muscle fibres
D) Placental separation
Question No 69: The most important factor in preventing post partum haemorrhage from the placental site is:
A) Complete separation of the placenta and membranes
B) Spasm of the muscular walls of the uterine arteries
C) Prevention of trauma of the uterus and birth canal
D) Contraction of the middle layer of the myometrium
Question No 70: A post partum haemorrhage is any blood loss exceeding:
A) 200 millilitre
B) 300 millilitre
C) 500 millilitre
D) 1000 millilitre
Question No 71: Persistent red lochia is:
A) A normal phenomenon
B) Associated with cardiac disease
C) A prime cause of anaemia
D) A sign of possible infection
Question No 72: If a mother has placental abruption, the major sign she will exhibit is:
A) Painful bleeding
B) Painless bleeding
C) Hypertension
D) Nausea and vomiting
Question No 73: A patient admitted with suspected pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) requires transport to the radiology department for a chest X-ray. What is the most appropriate infection control measure during transport?
A) The patient wears a standard surgical mask.
B) Transport staff wear N95/P2 respirators.
C) No specific precautions are needed if the patient is covering their cough.
D) Schedule the X-ray at the end of the day to minimise exposure.
Question No 74: Mihiraa, an elderly Māori woman admitted with pneumonia, has her whānau visiting frequently and staying for long periods, sometimes overnight in her room. The nursing staff are concerned about noise and space. What is the nurse’s best initial approach?
A) Explain the hospital’s visiting policy limits and ask the whānau to comply.
B) Arrange a meeting with the whānau and a Māori health liaison worker to discuss care and support needs that respect whānau ora.
C) Move Mihiraa to a single room to accommodate the whānau without disturbing others.
D) Document the disruption caused by the whānau in the nursing notes.
Question No 75: A patient is prescribed intravenous gentamicin 120 mg TDS. The stock vial contains 80 mg in 2 mL. How many mL should the nurse draw up for one dose?
A) 1.5 mL
B) 2.0 mL
C) 3.0 mL
D) 4.0 mL
Question No 76: Mr. Peterson, 78 years old, with a history of heart failure, complains of increasing shortness of breath and has bilateral pitting oedema up to his knees. His oxygen saturation is 90% on room air. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A) Administer prescribed PRN furosemide.
B) Apply supplemental oxygen via nasal prongs.
C) Elevate the patient’s legs on pillows.
D) Encourage the patient to ambulate to improve circulation.
Question No 77: A newly registered nurse makes a medication error by administering medication via the wrong route. The patient appears unharmed. What is the nurse’s primary professional responsibility?
A) Inform the patient about the error immediately.
B) Assess the patient, report the error to the nurse in charge/doctor, and complete an incident report.
C) Document the medication as given correctly to avoid disciplinary action.
D) Ask a colleague to monitor the patient closely for any adverse effects.
Question No 78: You are caring for Mihiraa, who has just received a diagnosis of metastatic cancer. She is quiet and tearful. Her husband asks you, “Is she going to die soon?” What is your most appropriate response?
A) “It’s a very serious diagnosis, but we will focus on providing the best comfort care.”
B) “The doctor is the best person to discuss prognosis with you both.”
C) “I understand this is incredibly difficult news. How are you both feeling right now?”
D) “We can’t say for sure, but metastatic cancer is usually terminal.”
Question No 79: A patient develops septic shock. Which physiological response contributes significantly to the hypotension seen in this condition?
A) Increased systemic vascular resistance (SVR).
B) Widespread systemic vasodilation.
C) Decreased capillary permeability.
D) Reduced cardiac output only.
Question No 80: Mihiraa had a total hip replacement yesterday. She is using a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump with morphine. Which finding would indicate the PCA is effective?
A) The patient is sleeping soundly and difficult to rouse.
B) The patient rates her pain as 3/10 and is able to participate in physiotherapy.
C) The patient frequently pushes the PCA button with minimal time between attempts.
D) The patient’s respiratory rate is 10 breaths per minute.
Question No 81: Before administering a nasogastric (NG) tube feeding, what is the most reliable method for verifying tube placement in an adult patient?
A) Auscultating for air insufflation over the epigastrium.
B) Checking the external length marking of the tube.
C) Asking the patient if they can taste the feed.
D) Testing the pH of aspirated gastric contents.
Question No 82: An elderly patient, Mihiraa, is medically fit for discharge following a stroke but requires ongoing rehabilitation and home support. Which service is most likely to coordinate her needs assessment and access to community services in New Zealand?
A) The Accident Compensation Corporation (ACC).
B) The local Needs Assessment and Service Coordination (NASC) agency.
C) Work and Income New Zealand (WINZ).
D) The hospital’s social work department independently.
Question No 83: When developing a care plan for a Māori patient, incorporating the principle of Tino Rangatiratanga (self-determination) under Te Tiriti o Waitangi involves:
A) Ensuring the patient has access to hospital chaplaincy services.
B) Making decisions for the patient based on the nurse’s clinical judgment.
C) Respecting the patient’s and their whānau’s autonomy in making decisions about their care and treatment options.
D) Providing all patient education materials only in English.
Question No 84: You observe a healthcare assistant leaving an isolation room designated for contact precautions without removing their gown and gloves. What is your immediate action?
A) Report the healthcare assistant to the infection control nurse specialist.
B) Remind the healthcare assistant immediately about the correct procedure for doffing PPE before leaving the room.
C) Document the breach in the patient’s notes.
D) Ignore the incident as it was likely a one-off mistake.
Question No 85: A patient taking warfarin has an INR of 5.5 (therapeutic range typically 2.0-3.0). They have no signs of active bleeding. What action should the nurse anticipate? A) Administering intravenous Vitamin K immediately.
B) Holding the next dose of warfarin and notifying the prescriber.
C) Increasing the next dose of warfarin to compensate.
D) Reassuring the patient that this level is acceptable.
Question No 86: Mihiraa is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). She is receiving an insulin infusion and intravenous fluids. Which electrolyte imbalance is crucial to monitor for during the initial treatment phase?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypernatremia
D) Hypocalcemia
Question No 87: A competent adult patient with terminal cancer decides to refuse further chemotherapy, stating they want to focus on quality of life. Their family strongly disagrees and insists the treatment continue. The nurse’s primary advocacy role is to:
A) Persuade the patient to reconsider chemotherapy for the family’s sake.
B) Support the patient’s right to refuse treatment and facilitate communication between the patient and family.
C) Arrange a family meeting with the doctor to override the patient’s decision.
D) Document the family’s disagreement and proceed with chemotherapy as they request.
Question No 88: Which condition is most likely to cause respiratory acidosis?
A) Hyperventilation due to anxiety.
B) Severe diarrhoea.
C) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) exacerbation.
D) Excessive vomiting.
Question No 89: A nurse notices a discrepancy between the medication chart and the doctor’s verbal order received earlier for Mihiraa. What is the safest course of action?
A) Administer the medication according to the written chart.
B) Administer the medication according to the verbal order remembered.
C) Contact the doctor to clarify the order before administering the medication.
D) Ask a senior nurse which order they think is correct.
Question No 90: Which statement represents the best practice for nursing documentation in New Zealand?
A) Documenting personal opinions about the patient’s attitude.
B) Using correction fluid to amend errors in handwritten notes.
C) Documenting assessments, interventions, and patient responses objectively and contemporaneously.
D) Pre-charting interventions before they are completed to save time.
Question No 91: Mihiraa returns from theatre following abdominal surgery with an epidural in situ for pain relief. Which assessment is most critical for the nurse to perform frequently in the initial post-operative period related to the epidural?
A) Pupil reaction to light.
B) Bowel sounds auscultation.
C) Respiratory rate and sedation level.
D) Peripheral pulse checks.
Question No 92: A nurse is caring for a patient with a stage 3 pressure injury with moderate exudate and granulation tissue present. Which dressing type would be most appropriate?
A) Dry gauze dressing.
B) Hydrocolloid dressing.
C) Alginate dressing.
D) Transparent film dressing.
Question No 93: A Samoan patient, Mihiraa, appears hesitant to ask questions about her condition despite the nurse encouraging her to do so. This hesitancy might reflect a cultural value where:
A) Patients prefer written information over verbal discussion.
B) Direct questioning of authority figures (like nurses/doctors) may be considered disrespectful.
C) Family members are expected to manage all communication with healthcare staff.
D) Patients typically research their conditions independently online.
Question No 94: An adult patient requires 5000 units of subcutaneous heparin. The available vial contains 25,000 units per mL. What volume should the nurse administer?
A) 0.1 mL
B) 0.2 mL
C) 0.5 mL
D) 1.0 mL
Question No 95: Mihiraa, an 80-year-old patient admitted with dehydration and confusion, is assessed as being at high risk of falls. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
A) Apply wrist restraints to prevent climbing out of bed.
B) Ensure the call bell and personal items are within easy reach.
C) Request an order for sedation to keep the patient calm.
D) Keep all four bed rails raised at all times.
Question No 96: A patient offers a nurse a valuable gift voucher as a thank you for excellent care during their hospital stay. What is the nurse’s most appropriate action according to Nursing Council of New Zealand guidelines?
A) Accept the gift gratefully as it reflects good care.
B) Politely decline the gift, explaining professional boundaries regarding significant gifts.
C) Accept the gift but share it with the entire ward team.
D) Suggest the patient make a donation to the hospital foundation instead.
Question No 97: A patient is admitted with severe vomiting and diarrhoea. Their blood results show: Na+ 130 mmol/L, K+ 3.0 mmol/L, Cl- 90 mmol/L, Urea 15 mmol/L, Creatinine 150 µmol/L. What type of intravenous fluid would be most appropriate for initial resuscitation?
A) 0.9% Sodium Chloride (Normal Saline).
B) 5% Dextrose in water (D5W).
C) 0.45% Sodium Chloride (Half Normal Saline).
D) Hartmann’s solution (Lactated Ringer’s).
Question No 98: A nurse is assessing Mihiraa, who presents with symptoms of depression. Which question is essentialto include in the initial assessment?
A) “Have you ever felt this way before?”
B) “Are you having any thoughts of harming yourself or others?”
C) “What activities do you usually enjoy?”
D) “Is there a family history of mental illness?”
Question No 99: Standard precautions should be applied when caring for:
A) Only patients known to have blood-borne viruses.
B) Only patients placed in isolation rooms.
C) All patients, regardless of their diagnosis or presumed infection status.
D) Only patients with open wounds or invasive devices.
Question No 100: A registered nurse wants to maintain their competence as required by the Nursing Council of New Zealand (NCNZ). This involves:
A) Completing a minimum number of postgraduate papers annually.
B) Attending at least one international nursing conference per year.
C) Meeting requirements for practice hours, professional development hours, and maintaining a portfolio demonstrating competence against NCNZ competencies.
D) Publishing research in a peer-reviewed nursing journal every three years.
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https://www.mihiraa.com/iqn-nz-exam-guide-and-practice-questions/