1. A patient who is in isolation needs a temperature taken several times a day. Where is the appropriate place for the thermometer to be kept?
A. At the nurses’ station.
B. On the isolation cart outside the patient’s room.
C. In the dirty utility room.
D. In the patient’s room.

2. Which of the following best describes how persons affected by Parkinson’s disease typically walk?
A. Long, steady gaits
B. They shuffle their feet while taking small steps
C. Fast movement of the feet
D. Always needs support from assistive devices

3. A male patient with a right pleural effusion noted on a chest X-ray is being prepared for thoracentesis. The patient experiences severe dizziness when sitting upright. To provide a safe environment, the nurse assists the patient to which position for the procedure?
A. Prone with head turned toward the side supported by a pillow
B. Sims’ position with the head of the bed flat
C. Right side-lying with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees
D. Left side-lying with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees

4. A patient is experiencing pain during the first stage of labor. What should the nurse instruct the patient to do to manage her pain? Select all that apply
A. Walk in the hospital room.
B. Use slow chest breathing.
C. Request pain medication on a regular basis.
D. Lightly massage her abdomen.
E. Sip ice water.

5. The nurse is monitoring a child with burns during treatment for burn shock. Which assessment provides the most accurate guide to determine the adequacy of fluid resuscitation?
A. Skin turgor
B. Level of edema at burn site
C. Adequacy of capillary filling
D. Amount of fluid tolerated in 24 hours

6. Which of the following structures should be closed by the time the child is 2 months old?
A. Anterior fontanelle
B. Posterior fontanelle
C. Suture lines
D. Sphenoidal fontanelle

7. The nurse is evaluating an infant who has an intravenous infusion secured to a sandbag (see figure). The nurse should:
A. Add tape to cover the toe.
B. Secure the right leg to a sandbag.
C. Check the infusion rate every hour.
D. Change the sandbag to an extremity restraint

8. The nurse is assessing a patient who has had a myocardial infarction (MI). The nurse notes the cardiac rhythm shown on the electrocardiogram strip below. The nurse identifies this rhythm as which of the following?
A. Atrial fibrillation.
B. Ventricular tachycardiA.
C. Premature ventricular contractions (PVCs).
D. Third-degree heart block.

9. The patient admitted with peripheral vascular disease (PVD. asks the nurse why her legs hurt when she walks. The nurse bases a response on the knowledge that the main characteristic of PVD is:
A. Decreased blood flow.
B. Increased blood flow.
C. Slow blood flow.
D. Thrombus formation.

10. A patient is scheduled to undergo right axillary-to-axillary artery bypass surgery. Which of the following interventions is most important for the nurse to implement in the preoperative period?
A. Assess the temperature in the affected arm.
B. Monitor the radial pulse in the affected arm.
C. Protect the extremity from colD.
D. Avoid using the arm for a venipuncture.

11. When giving discharge instructions to the patient with vasospastic disorder (Raynaud’s phenomenon), the nurse should explain that the expected outcome of taking a beta adrenergic blocking medication is to control the symptoms by:
A. Decreasing the influence of the sympathetic nervous system on the tissues in the hands and feet.
B. Decreasing the pain by producing analgesiA.
C. Increasing the blood supply to the affected areA.
D. Increasing monoamine oxidase.

12. The patient is admitted with left lower leg pain, a positive Homans’ sign, and a temperature of 100.4° F (38° C.. The nurse should assess the patient further for signs of:
A. Aortic aneurysm.
B. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the left leg.
C. I.V. drug abuse.
D. Intermittent claudication.

13. A patient has sudden, severe pain in his back and chest, accompanied by shortness of breath. The patient describes the pain as a “tearing” sensation. The physician suspects the patient is experiencing a dissecting aortic aneurysm. The code cart is brought into the room because one complication of a dissecting aneurysm is:
A. Cardiac tamponade.
B. Stroke.
C. Pulmonary edemA.
D. Myocardial infarction.

14. A nurse is teaching a patient about taking antihistamines. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching plan? Select all that apply.
A. Operating machinery and driving may be dangerous while taking antihistamines.
B. Continue taking antihistamines even if nasal infection develops.
C. The effect of antihistamines is not felt until a day later.
D. Do not use alcohol with antihistamines.
E. Increase fluid intake to 2,000 mL/day.

15. A patient who has had a total laryngectomy appears withdrawn and depresseD. He keeps the curtain drawn, refuses visitors, and indicates a desire to be left alone. Which nursing intervention would most likely be therapeutic for the patient?
A. Discussing his behavior with his wife to determine the cause.
B. Exploring his future plans.
C. Respecting his need for privacy.
D. Encouraging him to express his feelings nonverbally and in writing.

16. A 79-year-old female patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of bacterial pneumoniA. While obtaining the patient’s health history, the nurse learns that the patient has osteoarthritis, follows a vegetarian diet, and is very concerned with cleanliness. Which of the following would most likely be a predisposing factor for the diagnosis of pneumonia?
A. Age.
B. Osteoarthritis.
C. Vegetarian diet.
D. Daily bathing

17. Which of the following symptoms is common in patients with active tuberculosis?
A. Weight loss.
B. Increased appetite.
C. Dyspnea on exertion.
D. Mental status changes.

18. A patient experiencing a severe asthma attack has the following arterial blood gas: pH 7.33; PCO2 48; PO2 58; HCO3 26. Which of the following orders should the nurse perform first?
A. Albuterol (Proventil) nebulizer.
B. Chest x-ray.
C. Ipratropium (Atrovent) inhaler.
D. Sputum culture.

19. A female patient diagnosed with lung cancer is to have a left lower lobectomy. Which of the following increases the patient’s risk of developing postoperative pulmonary complications?
A. Height is 5 feet, 7 inches and weight is 110 lB.
B. The patient tends to keep her real feelings to herself.
C. She ambulates and can climb one flight of stairs without dyspneA.
D. The patient is 58 years of age.

20. The nurse is assessing a patient who has a chest tube connected to a water-seal chest tube drainage system. According to the illustration shown, which should the nurse do?
A. Clamp the chest tube near the insertion site to prevent air from entering the pleural cavity.
B. Notify the physician of the amount of chest tube drainage.
C. Add water to maintain the water seal.
D. Lower the drainage system to maintain gravity flow.

21. A patient has entered a smoking cessation program to quit a two-pack-a-day cigarette habit. He tells the nurse that he has not smoked a cigarette for 3 weeks, but is afraid he is going to “slip up” and smoke because of current job pressures. What would be the most appropriate reply for the nurse to make in response to the patient’s comments?
A. “Don’t worry about it. Everybody has difficulty quitting smoking, and you should expect to as well.”
B. “If you increase your self-control, I am sure you will be able to avoid smoking.”
C. “Try taking a couple of days of vacation to relieve the stress of your joB.”
D. “It is good that you can talk about your concerns. Try calling a friend when you want to smoke.”

22. The nurse is developing standards of care for a patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease and wants to review current evidence for practice. Which one of the following resources will provide the most helpful information?
A. A review in the Cochrane Library.
B. A literature search in a database, such as the Cumulative Index to Nursing and Allied Health Literature (CINHAL).
C. An online nursing textbook.
D. The online policy and procedure manual at the health care agency.

23. TPN is ordered for a patient with Crohn’s disease. Which of the following indicate the TPN solution is having an intended outcome?
A. There is increased cell nutrition.
B. The patient does not have metabolic acidosis.
C. The patient is hydrateD.
D. The patient is in a negative nitrogen balance.

24. The nurse notes that the sterile, occlusive dressing on the central catheter insertion site of a patient receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is moist. The patient is breathing easily with no abnormal breath sounds. The nurse should do the following in order of what priority from first to last?
A. Change dressing per institutional policy.
B. Culture drainage at insertion site.
C. Notify physician.
D. Position rolled towel under patient’s back, parallel to the spine.

25. Serum concentrations of thyroid hormones and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) are tests ordered for the patient with thyrotoxicosis. Which of the following laboratory values are indicative of thyrotoxicosis?
A. Elevated thyroid hormone concentrations and normal TSH.
B. Elevated TSH and normal thyroid hormone concentrations.
C. Decreased thyroid hormone concentrations and elevated TSH.
D. Elevated thyroid hormone concentrations and decreased TSH.

26. The nurse is checking the laboratory results on a 52-year-old patient with type 1 diabetes (see chart). What laboratory result indicates a problem that should be managed?
A. Blood glucose.
B. Total cholesterol.
C. Hemoglobin.
D. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol.

27. The patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus is taught to take isophane insulin suspension NPH (Humulin N) at 5 p.m. each day. The patient should be instructed that the greatest risk of hypoglycemia will occur at about what time?
A. 11 A.m., shortly before lunch.
B. 1 p.m., shortly after lunch.
C. 6 p.m., shortly after dinner.
D. 1 A.m., while sleeping.

28. Four days after surgery for internal fixation of a C3 to C4 fracture, a nurse is moving a patient from the bed to the wheelchair. The nurse is checking the wheelchair for features for this patient. Which of the following features of the wheelchair are appropriate for the needs of this patient? Select all that apply.
A. Back at the level of the patient’s scapulA.
B. Back and head that are high.
C. Seat that is lower than normal.
D. Seat with firm cushions.
E. Chair controlled by the patient’s breath

29. A patient with multiple sclerosis (MS) is experiencing bowel incontinence and is starting a bowel retraining program. Which strategy is inappropriate?
A. Eating a diet high in fiber.
B. Setting a regular time for elimination.
C. Using an elevated toilet seat.
D. Limiting fluid intake to 1,000 mL/day.

30. The nurse is teaching a mother whose daughter has iron-deficiency anemiA. The nurse determines the parent understood the dietary modifications if she selects?
A. Bread and coffee
B. Fish and Pork meat
C. Cookies and milk
D. Oranges and green leafy vegetables

31. Which of the following is the most common clinical manifestation of G6PD following ingestion of aspirin?
A. Kidney failure
B. Acute hemolytic anemia
C. Hemophilia A
D. Thalassemia

32. The nurse assesses a client with an ileostomy for possible development of which of the following acid-base imbalances?
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis

33. The nurse anticipates which of the following responses in a client who develops metabolic acidosis.
A. Heart rate of 105 bpm
B. Urinary output of 15 ml
C. Respiratory rate of 30 cpm
D. Temperature of 39 degree Celsius

34. A client has a phosphorus level of 5.0mg/dL. The nurse closely monitors the client for?
A. Signs of tetany
B. Elevated blood glucose
C. Cardiac dysrhythmias
D. Hypoglycemia

35. A nurse is caring for a child with pyloric stenosis. The nurse would watch out for symptoms of?
A. Vomiting large amounts
B. Watery stool
C. Projectile vomiting
D. Dark-colored stool

36. The nurse responder finds a patient unresponsive in his house. Arrange steps for adult CPR.
A. Assess consciousness
B. Give 2 breaths
C. Perform chest compression
D. Check for serious bleeding and shock
e) Open patient’s airway
f) Check breathing
A. a, f, e, c, b, d
B. a, e, f, c, d, b
C. a, e, f, d, b, c
D. a, c, b, e, d, f

37. Which of the following has mostly likely occurred when there is continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of the closed chest drainage system?
A. The connection has been taped too tightly
B. The connection tubes are kinked
C. Lung expansion
D. Air leak in the system

38. Which of the following young adolescent and adult male clients are at most risk for testicular cancer?
A. A basketball player who wears supportive gear during basketball games
B. Teenager who swims on a varsity swim team
C. 20-year-old with undescended testis
D. Patient with a family history of colon cancer

39. The nurse plans to frequently assess a post-thyroidectomy patient for?
A. Polyuria
B. Hypoactive deep tendon reflex
C. Hypertension
D. Laryngospasm

40. An 18-month-old baby appears to have a rounded belly, bowlegs and a slightly large heaD. The nurse concludes?
A. The child appears to be a normal toddler
B. The child is developmentally delayed
C. The child is malnourished
D. The child’s large head may have neurological problems.

41. A nurse is going to administer a 500mg capsule to a patient. Which is the route?
A. Oral
B. Intramuscular
C. Subcutaneous
D. Intravenous

42. An appropriate instruction to be included in the discharge teaching of a patient following a spinal fusion is?
A. Don’t use the stairs
B. Don’t bend at the waist
C. Don’t walk for long hours
D. Swimming should be avoided

43. A nurse is preparing to give an IM injection of Iron Dextran that is irritating to the subcutaneous tissue. To prevent irritation to the tissue, what is the best action to be taken?
A. Apply ice over the injection site
B. Administer drug at a 45-degree angle
C. Use a 24-gauge-needle
D. Use the z-track technique

44. What should a nurse do prior to taking the patient’s history?
A. Offer the patient a glass of water
B. Establish rapport
C. Ask the patient to disrobe and put on a gown
D. Ask pertinent information for insurance purposes

45. A pregnant woman is admitted for pre-eclampsiA. The nurse would include in the health teaching that magnesium will be part of the medical management to accomplish the following?
A. Control seizures
B. promote renal perfusion
C. To decrease sustained contractions
D. Maintain intrauterine homeostasis

46. A nurse is going to administer ear drops to a 4-year-old chilD. What is the way of instilling the medicine after tilting the patient’s head sidewards?
A. Pull the pinna back then downwards
B. Pull the pinna back then upwards
C. Pull the pinna up then backwards
D. Pull the pinna down then backwards

47. A nursing student was intervened by the clinical instructor if which of the following is observed?
A. Inserting a nasogastric tube
B. Positioning the infant in a “sniffing “position
C. Suctioning first the mouth, then the nose
D. Squeezing the bulb syringe to suction the mouth

48. Choose amongst the options illustrated below that best describes the angle for an intradermal injection?
A. 10 to 15 degrees
B. 45 degrees
C. 90 degrees
D. 30 degrees

49. During a basic life support class, the instructor said that blind finger sweeping is not advisable for infants. Which among the following could be the reason?
A. The mouth is still too small
B. The object may be pushed deeper into the throat
C. Sharp fingernails might injure the victim
D. The infant might bite

50. A nurse enters a room and finds a patient lying on the floor. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform first?
A. Call for help
B. Establish responsiveness of the patient
C. Ask the patient what happened
D. Assess vital signs

51. A patient with complaints of chest pain was rushed to the emergency department. Which priority action should the nurse do first?
A. Administer morphine sulfate intravenously
B. Initiate venous access by performing venipuncture
C. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula
D. Complete physical assessment and patient history

52. A rehab nurse reviews a post-stroke patient’s immunization history. Which immunization is a priority for a 72-year-old patient?
A. Hepatitis A vaccine
B. Hepatitis B vaccine
C. Rotavirus Vaccine
D. Pneumococcal Vaccine

53. Several patients from a reported condominium fire incident were rushed to the emergency room. Which should the nurse attend to first?
A. A 15-year-old girl, with burns on the face and chest, reports hoarseness of the voice
B. A 28-year-old man with burns on all extremities
C. A 4-year-old child who is crying inconsolably and reports a severe headache
D. A 40-year-old woman with complaints of severe pain on the left thigh

54. The doctor ordered 1 pack of red blood cells (PRBC. to be transfused to a patient. The nurse prepares the proper IV tubing. The IV tubing appropriate for blood transfusion comes with?
A. Air vent
B. Microdrip chamber
C. In-line filter
D. Soluset

55. The expected yet negative (harmful ) result for post hemodialysis is a decrease in?
A. Creatinine
B. BUN
C. Phosphorus
D. Red blood cell count

56. A patient was brought to the emergency room after she fell down the stairs. Which of the following is the best indicator for increased intracranial pressure in the head and spinal injury?
A. Inability to move extremities
B. Decreased respiratory rate
C. Increase in pulse and blood pressure
D. Decrease level of consciousness

57. A new nurse is administering an enema to a patient. The senior nurse should intervene if the new nurse?
A. Hangs the enema bag 18 inches above the anus
B. Positions the client on the right side
C. Advances the catheter 4 inches into the anal canal
D. Lubricates 4 inches of the catheter tip

58. The medication nurse is going to give a patient his morning medications. What is the primary action a nurse should do before administering the medications?
A. Provide privacy
B. Raise the head of the bed
C. Give distilled water
D. Check the client’s identification bracelet

59. A 30-year-old client is admitted with inflammatory bowel syndrome (Crohn’s disease). Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the health teaching? Select all that apply
A. Corticosteroid medication is part of the treatment
B. Include milk in the diet
C. Aspirin should be administered
D. Antidiarrheal medication can help

60. The client presented with complaints of body weakness, dizziness and chest pain. Upon careful assessment, the nurse suspects Angina Pectoris. Which of the following statements made by the client can confirm this?
A. “I suddenly felt a pain on my chest which radiates to my back and arms”.
B. “I suddenly felt a sharp pain on my lower abdomen”.
C. “The pain does not subside even if I rest”.
D. “The pain goes all the way down to my stomach”.

61. The client from the OR is transferred to the post-anesthesia care unit after surgical repair of abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which of the following assessment findings would indicate that the repair was successful?
A. Urine output of 50 mL/hr.
B. Presence of non-pitting, peripheral edema.
C. Clear sclera.
D. Presence of carotid bruit.

62. The client is scheduled for cardiac catheterization because the physician wants to view the right side of the heart. Which of the following would the nurse expect to see in this procedure?
A. A dye is injected to facilitate the viewing of the heart
B. Thallium is injected to facilitate the scintillation camera
C. A probe with a transducer tip is swallowed by the client.
D. A tiny ultrasound probe is inserted into the coronary artery

63. The client is being treated for hypovolemia. To assess the effectiveness of the treatment, the Central Venous Pressure (CVP) of the client is being monitored. Which of the following is TRUE about CVP?
A. The CVP is measured with a central venous line in the inferior vena cava.
B. The normal CVP is 7 to 9 mmHg.
C. The zero point on the transducer needs to be at the level of the left atrium.
D. The client needs to be supine, with the head of the bed elevated at 45 degrees.

64. The client’s ECG tracing shows ventricular tachycardia secondary to low magnesium level. Which of the following electrocardiogram tracing results is consistent with this finding?
A. The appearance of a U wave
B. Shortened ST segment and a widened T wave.
C. Tall, peaked T waves
D. Tall T waves and depressed ST segment

65. The nurse is teaching the client how to use a dry powder inhaler (DPI). Which of the following are instructions given by the nurse? Select All That Apply.
A. Load the drug first by turning to the next dose of drug, or inserting the capsule into the device, or inserting the disk or compartment into the device.
B. Never wash or place the inhaler in water.
C. Shake your inhaler prior to use.
D. The drug is a dry powder that is why you will taste the drug as you inhale.
e. Never exhale into the inhaler.
f. Do not remove the inhaler from your mouth as soon as you have breathe in.

66. The nurse is assigned to render care for a client who has a chest tube drainage system. Which of the following are appropriate nursing actions? Select All That Apply.
A. Strip the chest tube.
B. Empty collection chamber when the drainage makes contact to the bottom of the tube.
C. Keep the chest tube as straight as possible.
D. Notify the physician of drainage is greater than 70mL/hr.
e. Assess bubbling in the water seal chamber.
f. Keep the drainage system at the level of the client’s chest

67. The client with DKA is receiving bicarbonate IV infusion for the treatment of severe metabolic acidosis. The nurse notes that the latest ABG shows a pH of 7.0. What should the nurse keep in mind in giving the drug?
A. Check vital signs before giving the drug and monitor serum sodium levels.
B. Perform a sensitivity test prior to drug administration.
C. Mix the drug with D10W 500 ml IV fluid and infuse for over 4 to 8 hours.
D. Administer the drug slowly and monitor the potassium level

68. The client with a gunshot wound on the abdomen starts to get lethargic, is breathing heavily, and the wound dressing is fully soaked with blood. The nurse is expected to immediately perform which of the following actions?
A. Loosen tight clothing and administer oxygen supply.
B. Apply a warm blanket to prevent heat loss.
C. Apply large gauze on the bleeding site to put direct pressure or place a tourniquet on the artery near the bleeding site.
D. Initiate IV access.

69. The nurse is providing home instructions to a client with an increased adrenocorticotrophic hormone. The nurse is aware that the client with excessive corticosteroids is suffering from what condition?
A. Cushing’s syndrome
B. Addison’s disease
C. Hypothyroidism
D. SIADH

70. The nurse is assigned to a post-thyroidectomy client and is monitoring for signs of hypocalcemia. The nurse gently tapped the area below the zygomatic bone just in front of the ear. This action will elicit:
A. Facial tremor
B. Hyperreflexia
C. Chvostek sign
D. Trousseau sign

71. The nurse is caring for a client with an antineoplastic IV hooked on the right hand. The nurse notices that IV site is swelling and feels cool when touched. The nurse recognizes this as extravasation. This predisposes the client to develop which among the following complications? Select all that apply.
A. Infection
B. Tissue necrosis
C. Disfigurement
D. Loss of function
e. Amputation
f. Delayed healing

72. Nursing interventions commonly performed when the client is experiencing Autonomic Dysreflexia will include the following. Select all that apply.
A. Use digital stimulation to empty the bowel.
B. Have the client sit up straight and raise his head so that he is looking ahead.
C. Remove the client’s stockings or socks.
D. Manually compress or tap the bladder to allow urine to flow down the catheter.
E. Administer prescribed vasodilators.

73. Neurologic conditions can be manifested by changes in breathing patterns. The client presents with symptoms of Cheyne-Stokes respirations. The nurse knows that this kind of breathing pattern shows:
A. Completely irregular breathing pattern with random deep and shallow respirations
B. Prolonged inspirations with inspiratory and /or expiratory pauses
C. Sustained regular rapid respirations of increased depth
D. Rhythmic waxing and waning of both rate and depth of respiration with brief periods of interspersed apnea

74. The physician is assessing the client’s sensorium by using the Glasgow Coma Scale. Which of the following is true about the Glasgow Coma Scale?
A. If the client does not respond to painful stimuli, the score is 0.
B. A score lower than 10 indicates that the client is in a coma.
C. A score of 8 indicates that the client is alert and oriented.
D. A score of 4 indicates that the client sustained severe head trauma.

75. The nurse on duty is caring for a client with Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis and is concerned with the client’s impaired physical mobility. The following nursing interventions are geared towards maintaining optimal physical mobility EXCEPT:
A. Maintain an exercise program.
B. Encourage participation in activities.
C. Instruct client-related safety measures.
D. Schedule activities in the morning.

76. An elderly client had a cerebrovascular accident or stroke. The left brain is affected and is at risk for impaired verbal communication. The nurse asked a question and noted that the client has difficulty talking and communicating his thoughts. Which of the following terms should the nurse use to document the finding?
A. Receptive Aphasia
B. Expressive Aphasia
C. Global aphasia
D. Apraxia

77. The client diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease is starting to show signs and symptoms. The nurse wants to assess for graphesthesia. This is performed by:
A. Testing for the client’s ability to identify an object that is placed on the hand with eyes closed.
B. Testing for the client’s ability to recognize the written letter or number in the client’s skin while the eyes are closed.
C. Making the client stand, with the arms at the side, feet together, with the eyes open and then closed. The client is then observed for any swaying.
D. Testing for the presence of pain once the leg is flexed at the hip, and then extended.

78. The pediatric client presents with the following signs and symptoms: high fever, drooling, difficulty of breathing, and leaning forward in a tripod position. Immunization history shows that the client never received any Hib vaccine. Which of the following is the priority of the healthcare provider?
A. Continuous oxygen therapy and constant monitoring of oxygen saturation rate.
B. A well-regulated IV infusion and timely administration of antibiotics.
C. Vaccination of Hib and other remaining vaccines to complete the required immunizations.
D. Avoiding any throat examination or agitation of the child.

79. The physician prescribed Clarithromycin (Biaxin) 250mg BID x 7 days for the client’s infection. Indrug frequency and duration would cause inaccurate transfer time of the drug to specific tissues in the body. The nurse explains to the client that accumulation of the drug in specific tissues is the concept of
A. Absorption
B. Distribution
C. Metabolism
D. Excretion

80. The nurse is to administer Meperidine (Demerol) 35 mg through the intramuscular route. Available meperidine is 50mg/mL. Which of the following is the least favorable injection site for intramuscular medication?
A. Ventrogluteal
B. Vastus lateralis
C. Deltoid muscle
D. Dorsogluteal

81. The client presented with a complaint of leg cramps. Upon checking the client’s chart, the nurse noted that the client is hypertensive and is prescribed a Thiazide diuretic. The appropriate nursing intervention for this client is:
A. Stop the Thiazide diuretic
B. Refer to the physician for evaluation of the electrolyte level of the client
C. Switch the client to a loop diuretic
D. Give the client a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)

82. The client is wheeled into the delivery room and is ready for childbirth. While crowning occurs, the labor nurse applies gentle pressure over the perineum and fetal head. The maneuver performed is called:
A. Brandt-Andrew’s maneuver
B. McRobert’s maneuver
C. Schultz mechanism
D. Ritgen’s maneuver

83. The nurse is monitoring the condition of the postpartum client. As a part of the postpartum adaptations, the nurse monitors for descent of the uterus and expects the fundus to be:
A. On the same level after delivery
B. Decreased by 1 cm/day
C. Decreased by 1.5 cm/day
D. Decreased by 2 cm/day

84. The granddaughter of the client asked the nurse if it is normal for elderly people to feel sleepy despite sleeping for long hours. Which of the following conditions would the nurse suspect?
A. Somatoform Disorder
B. Malingering
C. Anxiety
D. Amnesia

85. Chemotherapy is one of the treatments for uterine cancer. The client asked the nurse how chemotherapeutic drugs work. Which of the following statements will be the best explanation?
A. Chemotherapeutic agents alter the molecular structure of DNA.
B. Chemotherapeutic agents hasten cell division.
C. Cancer cells are sensitive only to chemotherapeutic agents.
D. Chemotherapeutic agents act on all rapidly dividing cells.

86. Vomiting is one of the most common side effects of chemotherapy. The nurse should be aware of which acid-base imbalance?
A. Ketoacidosis
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis

87. The client develops a 2nd-degree skin reaction from radiation therapy. The nurse should expect the following symptoms EXCEPT:
A. The skin is scaly.
B. There is an itchy feeling.
C. There is a dry desquamation present.
D. The skin is reddened.

88. The nurse is assessing the muscle coordination and mobility of the client with a musculoskeletal disorder. The nurse noted impulsive and brief muscle twitching of the face and the limbs. This finding is called:
A. Tremor
B. Chorea
C. Athetosis
D. Dystonia

89. The nurse is assigned to render care to a client with altered mobility. Which of the following statements is true regarding body mechanics when moving clients?
A. Stand at arm’s length from the working area.
B. Elevate adjustable beds to the hip level.
C. Swivel the body when moving the client.
D. Move the client with a wide base and straight knees.

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Saudi Prometric Exam for Nurses
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