Question 1:
A patient with Type 2 Diabetes is admitted with a foot ulcer. The nurse notices the patient has not been adhering to the prescribed diet. What is the most therapeutic initial response by the nurse?
A) “You must follow your diet strictly, or you could lose your foot.”
B) “Tell me about the challenges you face in following your meal plan.”
C) “I will refer you to the dietitian again for more education.”
D) “Your blood sugar is high because you are not eating correctly.”

 

Question 2:
During a blood transfusion, a patient develops chills, fever, and tachycardia. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A) Slow down the transfusion rate and monitor vital signs.
B) Administer prescribed antihistamines.
C) Stop the transfusion immediately and keep the IV line open with normal saline.
D) Notify the physician and the blood bank.

 

Question 3:
A post-operative patient suddenly complains of sudden shortness of breath and chest pain. The nurse suspects a pulmonary embolism. After calling for help, what is the nurse’s immediate action?
A) Administer high-flow oxygen.
B) Prepare for a stat CT pulmonary angiogram.
C) Auscultate the lung sounds.
D) Administer morphine sulfate as ordered for pain.

 

Question 4:
A nurse is preparing to administer medication to a patient. While checking the medication against the order, the nurse notices a discrepancy in the dosage. What should the nurse do first?
A) Administer the medication as it is dispensed by the pharmacy.
B) Withhold the medication and clarify the order with the prescribing physician.
C) Check with a senior colleague to see what the usual dose is.
D) Call the pharmacy to verify they dispensed the correct dose.

 

Question 5:
A Muslim patient is scheduled for surgery during Ramadan. The patient is fasting and is concerned about receiving medications. What is the most culturally sensitive action by the nurse?
A) Inform the patient that fasting is not allowed when they are sick.
B) Consult with the physician and an Imam to discuss religious exemptions and alternative medication schedules.
C) Assure the patient that IV medications and fluids do not break the fast.
D) Reschedule the surgery until after Ramadan.

 

Question 6:
A patient with Heart Failure has pitting edema in the lower extremities and shortness of breath at rest. The nurse should anticipate the administration of which class of drug as a first-line treatment?
A) Beta-blockers
B) ACE Inhibitors
C) Loop Diuretics
D) Calcium Channel Blockers

 

Question 7:
A nurse is caring for a patient with a low platelet count (thrombocytopenia). Which intervention is most critical to include in the nursing care plan?
A) Implement fall precautions and avoid intramuscular injections.
B) Encourage a high-protein diet.
C) Place the patient on droplet isolation.
D) Monitor for signs of infection.

 

Question 8:
An elderly patient with dementia repeatedly tries to get out of bed and pull out their IV line. The family is against the use of restraints. What is the best alternative nursing intervention?
A) Use wrist restraints as a last resort for patient safety.
B) Assign a nursing assistant to sit with the patient one-on-one.
C) Sedate the patient with prescribed medication.
D) Explain the dangers clearly to the patient.

 

Question 9:
A patient diagnosed with Pulmonary Tuberculosis is placed in an airborne infection isolation room. Which personal protective equipment (PPE) is required for the nurse when entering the room?
A) Gloves and Gown
B) Gloves, Gown, and N95 Respirator Mask
C) Surgical Mask and Gloves
D) Gown and Face Shield

 

Question 10:
During a code blue, the nurse connects the patient to the cardiac monitor, which shows Ventricular Fibrillation. The patient is unresponsive. What is the immediate next step?
A) Start CPR.
B) Administer Epinephrine 1mg IV.
C) Defibrillate the patient.
D) Secure the airway with an endotracheal tube.

 

Question 11:
A post-menopausal woman is at the clinic for a check-up. She asks the nurse about primary prevention for Osteoporosis. Which advice is most appropriate?
A) “You should start hormone replacement therapy.”
B) “Ensure adequate intake of Calcium and Vitamin D, and perform weight-bearing exercises.”
C) “Limit your physical activity to prevent fractures.”
D) “There is nothing you can do now as you are already post-menopausal.”

 

Question 12:
A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease presents with sudden, severe epigastric pain that is rigid and board-like. The nurse should suspect which complication?
A) Gastritis
B) Bowel Obstruction
C) Perforated Ulcer
D) Cholecystitis

 

Question 13:
A nurse is teaching a patient how to use an inhaler with a spacer. Which patient action indicates correct understanding?
A) The patient inhales quickly and forcefully as they press the canister.
B) The patient holds the inhaler two inches away from their mouth.
C) The patient presses the canister and then breathes in slowly and deeply through the mouthpiece.
D) The patient exhales forcefully into the spacer after inhalation.

 

Question 14:
A patient with a head injury has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 7. How should the nurse interpret this finding?
A) The patient is fully conscious.
B) The patient is in a coma.
C) The patient has a mild head injury.
D) The patient is verbally oriented.

 

Question 15:
A nurse is delegating tasks to a nursing assistant. Which task is appropriate to delegate?
A) Assessing a new post-operative patient’s pain level.
B) Administering oral medications to a stable patient.
C) Assisting a stable patient with ambulation to the bathroom.
D) Educating a patient about a new diabetic diet.

 

Question 16:
A patient with cirrhosis shows confusion, a flapping tremor (asterixis), and fetor hepaticus. The nurse identifies these as signs of:
A) Hepatorenal syndrome.
B) Portal hypertension.
C) Hepatic encephalopathy.
D) Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis.

 

Question 17:
Before administering Digoxin, the nurse assesses the patient’s apical pulse and finds it to be 52 beats/min. The medication order does not have a hold parameter. What is the nurse’s best action?
A) Administer the medication as it is crucial for the patient’s heart failure.
B) Withhold the medication and notify the physician.
C) Administer the medication and monitor for bradycardia.
D) Recheck the pulse in 15 minutes.

 

Question 18:
A patient with a chest tube connected to an underwater seal drainage system is being transported for a CT scan. The chest tube accidentally gets disconnected from the drainage system. What should the nurse do first?
A) Clamp the chest tube.
B) Reconnect it to the drainage system as quickly as possible.
C) Submerge the end of the chest tube in a bottle of sterile water.
D) Call the physician immediately.

 

Question 19:
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient on Warfarin. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further education?
A) “I will use a soft-bristled toothbrush.”
B) “I will avoid playing contact sports.”
C) “I will eat more green leafy vegetables like spinach.”
D) “I will have my blood levels checked regularly.”

 

Question 20:
A patient with a spinal cord injury at the T4 level complains of a severe headache and is sweating profusely above the level of injury. The nurse checks the blood pressure and finds it is 210/110 mmHg. The nurse should suspect:
A) Spinal shock.
B) Autonomic dysreflexia.
C) Neurogenic shock.
D) Hypertensive crisis.

 

Question 21:
When a nurse witnesses a patient fall, what is the first action the nurse should take?
A) Run to get help.
B) Immediately help the patient back into bed.
C) Assess the patient for injury while they are on the floor.
D) Fill out an incident report.

 

Question 22:
A patient with Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) has deep, rapid respirations. The nurse documents this as:
A) Cheyne-Stokes respirations.
B) Kussmaul’s respirations.
C) Biot’s respirations.
D) Agonal respirations.

 

Question 23:
A patient is receiving a continuous IV infusion of Potassium Chloride. The nurse should be most concerned about which finding?
A) The patient complains of pain at the IV site.
B) The IV site is cool and pale.
C) The patient’s urine output is 40 mL/hour.
D) The heart monitor shows tall, peaked T-waves.

 

Question 24:
A nurse is preparing a patient for a colonoscopy. The patient asks when they should start the bowel preparation. What is the nurse’s best response?
A) “The night before the procedure.”
B) “One week before the procedure to adjust your diet.”
C) “You don’t need any preparation for this test.”
D) “The morning of the procedure.”

 

Question 25:
A patient with a history of Myasthenia Gravis is admitted with increased muscle weakness, difficulty swallowing, and shortness of breath. The nurse should be prepared for which primary intervention?
A) Administer the next scheduled dose of Pyridostigmine.
B) Prepare for endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation.
C) Administer IV immunoglobulins.
D) Perform a Tensilon test.

 

Question 26:
A post-operative patient has an NG tube set to low intermittent suction. The nurse should monitor for which electrolyte imbalance associated with gastric suctioning?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Metabolic Alkalosis
C) Respiratory Acidosis
D) Hypercalcemia

 

Question 27:
A nurse is assessing a patient’s IV site and notes redness, warmth, and a palpable cord along the vein. The patient complains of pain. The nurse should first:
A) Apply a warm compress to the site.
B) Slow down the IV infusion rate.
C) Discontinue the IV line and start a new one in a different location.
D) Administer an analgesic.

 

Question 28:
A patient is scheduled for an MRI. What is the nurse’s priority safety action before the procedure?
A) Ensure the patient is NPO for 6 hours.
B) Administer a sedative as ordered.
C) Screen for any metallic implants or pacemakers.
D) Start an IV line for contrast dye.

 

Question 29:
A patient with a new ileostomy is concerned about the odor from the stoma bag. What is the nurse’s best response?
A) “There is nothing we can do about the odor.”
B) “You should avoid eating certain foods like onions and fish.”
C) “The bags are odor-proof, so you don’t need to worry.”
D) “You can take deodorizing tablets and ensure the pouch seal is secure.”

 

Question 30:
A nurse is reviewing the lab results of a patient with Chronic Kidney Disease. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A) Serum Potassium: 6.2 mEq/L
B) Hemoglobin: 10.8 g/dL
C) Serum Sodium: 138 mEq/L
D) Blood Urea Nitrogen: 55 mg/dL

 

Question 31:
A patient is receiving a blood transfusion. The nurse knows that the maximum time a unit of blood can hang is:
A) 2 hours
B) 4 hours
C) 6 hours
D) 8 hours

 

Question 32:
A patient with Parkinson’s disease has a mask-like face, shuffling gait, and pill-rolling tremor. The nurse understands these are due to a deficiency of which neurotransmitter in the brain?
A) Acetylcholine
B) Dopamine
C) Serotonin
D) GABA

 

Question 33:
A patient is being treated for a hypertensive emergency with Sodium Nitroprusside. The nurse must closely monitor for which toxic effect of this medication?
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Cyanide Toxicity
C) Hepatotoxicity
D) Ototoxicity

 

Question 34:
A nurse is caring for a patient who is confused and trying to climb out of bed. The nurse applies a vest restraint. According to standards of care, how often must the nurse reassess this patient?
A) Every shift
B) Every 4 hours
C) Every 2 hours
D) Every 30 minutes to 1 hour

 

Question 35:
A patient with a peptic ulcer is started on a Proton Pump Inhibitor (PPI). The patient asks how the medication works. The nurse’s best response is:
A) “It neutralizes the acid in your stomach.”
B) “It forms a protective coating over the ulcer.”
C) “It blocks the final step of acid production in your stomach.”
D) “It reduces stomach acid by blocking histamine.”

 

Question 36:
A patient with a history of alcohol abuse is admitted. Several hours later, the patient becomes agitated, diaphoretic, and hallucinating. The nurse should suspect:
A) Korsakoff’s psychosis.
B) Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
C) Alcohol intoxication.
D) Alcohol withdrawal delirium.

 

Question 37:
A nurse is teaching a group of patients about infection control. Which action is the most effective way to prevent the spread of microorganisms?
A) Wearing gloves at all times.
B) Hand hygiene with soap and water or alcohol-based rub.
C) Putting on a gown before entering a patient’s room.
D) Disinfecting all surfaces daily.

 

Question 38:
A patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is on Warfarin. The nurse is reviewing the patient’s INR results. Which INR value is within the therapeutic range for this condition?
A) 1.0
B) 1.5
C) 2.5
D) 4.0

 

Question 39:
A patient is recovering from a total hip replacement. Which action by the patient indicates they understand the discharge teaching?
A) The patient bends at the waist to put on their shoes.
B) The patient uses a raised toilet seat at home.
C) The patient crosses their legs while sitting in a chair.
D) The patient sleeps on their side with their legs adducted.

 

Question 40:
A patient with a suspected MI has an order for Aspirin 325 mg. The nurse discovers the patient has a history of a peptic ulcer. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A) Administer the Aspirin with milk.
B) Crush the Aspirin and mix it with food.
C) Withhold the medication and confirm the order with the physician.
D) Administer the medication as ordered; it is critical.

 

Question 41:
A nurse is assessing a diabetic patient’s feet and finds a warm, red, swollen area on the sole with a callus. The patient has lost protective sensation. The nurse should document this as a likely:
A) Fungal infection.
B) Gangrene.
C) Neuropathic ulcer.
D) Gout.

 

Question 42:
A patient is receiving Mannitol for cerebral edema. The nurse evaluates that the drug is effective by noting:
A) A decrease in urine output.
B) An increase in urine output.
C) A decrease in heart rate.
D) An increase in blood pressure.

 

Question 43:
A post-partum mother complains of pain and redness in her left calf, which is warm to the touch. The nurse should suspect:
A) Varicose veins.
B) Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT).
C) Lymphedema.
D) Cellulitis.

 

Question 44:
A patient with a history of asthma is using a Salmeterol inhaler. The patient tells the nurse they use it when they feel short of breath. What is the nurse’s best response?
A) “That is the correct way to use it.”
B) “You should use this inhaler every 12 hours on a fixed schedule, not for acute attacks.”
C) “You need a higher dose if you are using it for shortness of breath.”
D) “You should use it only at bedtime.”

 

Question 45:
A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a 2-year-old child. What is the most appropriate site?
A) Gluteus maximus
B) Deltoid
C) Vastus lateralis
D) Dorsogluteal

 

Question 46:
A patient with Cushing’s syndrome is at risk for which complication?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Hypotension
C) Infection
D) Weight loss

 

Question 47:
A patient’s ABG results are: pH 7.28, PaCO2 55 mmHg, HCO3- 26 mEq/L. The nurse interprets this as:
A) Respiratory Acidosis
B) Respiratory Alkalosis
C) Metabolic Acidosis
D) Metabolic Alkalosis

 

Question 48:
A nurse is providing end-of-life care. The family is distressed by the patient’s noisy breathing (death rattle). What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
A) Suction the patient aggressively.
B) Reposition the patient and explain that this is a natural process.
C) Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
D) Encourage the patient to drink fluids.

 

Question 49:
A patient is scheduled for an elective surgery and is signing the consent form. The patient asks the nurse, “What are the risks of this procedure?” What is the nurse’s best response?
A) Explain all the potential risks and complications in detail.
B) “You should direct that question to your surgeon, who is responsible for explaining the procedure.”
C) “Don’t worry, the surgeon is very experienced.”
D) “The consent form lists all the risks, so you should read it carefully.”

 

Question 50:
A nurse is calculating the drip rate for an IV infusion. The order is for 1000 mL D5W to infuse over 8 hours. The tubing drop factor is 15 gtt/mL. How many drops per minute should the nurse regulate the IV?
A) 31 gtt/min
B) 42 gtt/min
C) 125 gtt/min
D) 50 gtt/min

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Saudi Prometric Exam for Nurses
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